$$\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } {\left( {1 + {{1 + {1 \over 2} + ........ + {1 \over n}} \over {{n^2}}}} \right)^n}$$ is equal to :

If f : R $$ \to $$ R is a function defined by f(x)= [x - 1] $$\cos \left( {{{2x - 1} \over 2}} \right)\pi $$, where [.] denotes the greatest integer function, then f is :

For all twice differentiable functions f : R $$ \to $$ R,
with f(0) = f(1) = f'(0) = 0

Let f : R $$ \to $$ R be a function defined by
f(x) = max {x, x²}. Let S denote the set of all points in R, where f is not differentiable. Then :