Let f, g : N $$ \to $$ N such that f(n + 1) = f(n) + f(1) $$\forall $$ n$$\in$$N and g be any arbitrary function. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

If Rolle's theorem holds for the function $$f(x) = {x^3} - a{x^2} + bx - 4$$, $$x \in [1,2]$$ with $$f'\left( {{4 \over 3}} \right) = 0$$, then ordered pair (a, b) is equal to :

Let the lines (2 $$-$$ i)z = (2 + i)$$\overline z $$ and (2 $$+$$ i)z + (i $$-$$ 2)$$\overline z $$ $$-$$ 4i = 0, (here i² = $$-$$1) be normal to a circle C. If the line iz + $$\overline z $$ + 1 + i = 0 is tangent to this circle C, then its radius is :

$$\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } {\left( {1 + {{1 + {1 \over 2} + ........ + {1 \over n}} \over {{n^2}}}} \right)^n}$$ is equal to :