Let $\mathbb{R}$ denote the set of all real numbers. Let $f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ be an arbitrary function and let $g : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ be the function defined by

$$g(x) = x f(x), \quad \text{for all } x \in \mathbb{R}.$$

Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

Let $S$ be the set of all $(\alpha, \beta) \in \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R}$ such that

$$ \lim\limits_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{\sin \left(x^2\right)\left(\log _e x\right)^\alpha \sin \left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right)}{x^{\alpha \beta}\left(\log _e(1+x)\right)^\beta}=0 . $$

Then which of the following is (are) correct?