Let f : R $$ \to $$ R and g : R $$ \to $$ R be functions
satisfying f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + f(x)f(y)
and f(x) = xg(x) for all x, y$$ \in $$R.
If $$\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to 0} g(x) = 1$$, then which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

Let the function f : R $$ \to $$ R be defined by f(x) = x³ $$-$$ x² + (x $$-$$ 1)sin x and let g : R $$ \to $$ R be an arbitrary function. Let fg : R $$ \to $$ R be the product function defined by (fg)(x) = f(x)g(x). Then which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

For $$a \in R,\,|a|\, > 1$$, let

$$\mathop {\lim }\limits_{n \to \infty } \left( {{{1 + \root 3 \of 2 + ...\root 3 \of n } \over {{n^{7/3}}\left( {{1 \over {{{(an + 1)}^2}}} + {1 \over {{{(an + 2)}^2}}} + ... + {1 \over {{{(an + n)}^2}}}} \right)}}} \right) = 54$$

Let f : R be a function. We say that f has

PROPERTY 1 if $$\mathop {\lim }\limits_{h \to 0} {{f(h) - f(0)} \over {\sqrt {|h|} }}$$ exists and is finite, and

PROPERTY 2 if $$\mathop {\lim }\limits_{h \to 0} {{f(h) - f(0)} \over {{h^2}}}$$ exists and is finite. Then which of the following options is/are correct?