If $$y=\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{4 \sin 2 x}{\cos 2 x-6 \sin ^2 x}\right)$$, then $$\left(\frac{\mathrm{d} y}{\mathrm{~d} x}\right)$$ at $$x=0$$ is

Let $$\mathrm{f}: \mathrm{R} \rightarrow \mathrm{R}$$ be a function such that $$\mathrm{f}(x)=x^3+x^2 \mathrm{f}^{\prime}(1)+x \mathrm{f}^{\prime \prime}(2)+6, x \in \mathrm{R}$$, then $$\mathrm{f}(2)$$ is

If $$\mathrm{f}(x)=\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{2 \log x}{1+(\log x)^2}\right)$$, then $$\mathrm{f}^{\prime}(\mathrm{e})$$ is

For $$x>1$$, if $$(2 x)^{2 y}=4 \mathrm{e}^{2 x-2 y}$$, then $$\left(1+\log _e 2 x\right)^2 \frac{d y}{d x}$$ is equal to