The following statement $(\mathrm{p} \rightarrow \mathrm{q}) \rightarrow((\sim \mathrm{p} \rightarrow \mathrm{q}) \rightarrow \mathrm{q})$ is

Let $\mathrm{p}, \mathrm{q}$ and r be the statements

$\mathrm{p}: \mathrm{X}$ is an equilateral triangle

$\mathrm{q}: \mathrm{X}$ is isosceles triangle

r: q $\vee \sim p$,

then the equivalent statement of $r$ is

Let p : A man is judge. $\mathrm{q}: \mathrm{He}$ is honest. The inverse of $p \rightarrow q$ is

The expression $((p \wedge q) \vee(p \vee \sim q)) \wedge(\sim p \wedge \sim q)$ is equivalent to