The value of $$\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to \alpha } {\left( {1 + {x^2}} \right)^{{e^{ - x}}}}\,\,$$ is

If $$g(x)=1-x$$ & $$h\left( x \right) = {x \over {x - 1}}\,\,$$ then $$\,\,{{g\left( {h\left( x \right)} \right)} \over {h\left( {g\left( x \right)} \right)}}\,\,\,$$ is

$$\,\,\mathop {\lim }\limits_{x \to \infty } \,{x^{1/x}}\,\,$$ is

Let the function
$$f\left( \theta \right) = \left| {\matrix{ {\sin \,\theta } & {\cos \,\theta } & {\tan \,\theta } \cr {\sin \left( {{\pi \over 6}} \right)} & {\cos \left( {{\pi \over 6}} \right)} & {\tan \left( {{\pi \over 6}} \right)} \cr {\sin \left( {{\pi \over 3}} \right)} & {\cos \left( {{\pi \over 3}} \right)} & {\tan \left( {{\pi \over 3}} \right)} \cr } } \right|$$

Where $$\theta \in \left[ {{\pi \over 6},{\pi \over 3}} \right]$$ and $$f\left( \theta \right)$$ denote the derivative of $$f$$ with repect to $$\theta $$. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE?

$${\rm I})$$ There exists $$\theta \in \left[ {{\pi \over 6},{\pi \over 3}} \right]$$ such that $$f\left( \theta \right)$$ $$= 0$$.
$${\rm I}{\rm I})$$ There exists $$\theta \in \left[ {{\pi \over 6},{\pi \over 3}} \right]$$ such that $$f\left( \theta \right)$$ $$ \ne 0$$.