The value of $\mathrm{I}=\mathrm{I}=\int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{x^2 \cos x}{1+\mathrm{e}^{-x}} \mathrm{~d} x$ is equal to

If $\overline{\mathrm{a}}=\hat{\mathrm{i}}+\hat{\mathrm{j}}+\hat{\mathrm{k}}, \overline{\mathrm{a}} \cdot \overline{\mathrm{b}}=1$ and $\overline{\mathrm{a}} \times \overline{\mathrm{b}}=\hat{\mathrm{j}}-\hat{\mathrm{k}}$, then $\overline{\mathrm{b}}$ is

If the mean and the variance of Binomial variate $X$ are 2 and 1 respectively, then the probability that X takes a value greater than or equal to one is

The value of $I=\int \frac{(x-1) \mathrm{e}^x}{(x+1)^3} \mathrm{dx}$ is