If Mean value theorem holds for the function $\mathrm{f}(x)=(x-1)(x-2)(x-3), x \in[0,4]$ then the values of $c$ as per the theorem are
The value of $\mathrm{I}=\mathrm{I}=\int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{x^2 \cos x}{1+\mathrm{e}^{-x}} \mathrm{~d} x$ is equal to
If $\overline{\mathrm{a}}=\hat{\mathrm{i}}+\hat{\mathrm{j}}+\hat{\mathrm{k}}, \overline{\mathrm{a}} \cdot \overline{\mathrm{b}}=1$ and $\overline{\mathrm{a}} \times \overline{\mathrm{b}}=\hat{\mathrm{j}}-\hat{\mathrm{k}}$, then $\overline{\mathrm{b}}$ is
If the mean and the variance of Binomial variate $X$ are 2 and 1 respectively, then the probability that X takes a value greater than or equal to one is
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