Biology
1. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group 2. Which statement is wrong for viruses? 3. Nuclear membrane is absent in 4. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as 5. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd ftom milk and in production of antibiotics are the ones c 6. Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its or their named taxonomic group? 7. Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their nutrition? 8. Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses? 9. Which one of the following is a correct statement? 10. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having 11. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched, whereas the 12. Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from 13. Placentation in tomato and lemon is 14. Cymose inflorescence is present in 15. Phyllode is present in 16. How many plants in the list given below have composite fruits that develop from an inflorescence?
Walnut, poppy, radish 17. The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in flowers of 18. The coconut water and the edible part of coconut are equivalent to 19. Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the family 20. Which one out of A - D given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino acid?
21. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world? 22. The given diagrammatic representation shows one of the caregories of small molecular weight organic compounds in the liv 23. Which one of the following is wrong statement? 24. During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during 25. Best defined function of manganese in green plants is 26. Which one of the following is correctly matched? 27. A process that makes important difference between C3 and C4 plants is 28. The correct sequence of cell organelles during photores piration is 29. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an otherwise normal human, may lead to 30. Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in humans?
31. People who have migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohtang Pass about six months back 32. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at onc 33. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70 $$-$$ 80 percent) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in which p 34. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system. 35. Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing as such but is otherwise very much required? 36. The human hind brain comprises three parts, one of which is 37. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front on opening the door. Which one of the following is 38. Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass through the cell membrane of 39. What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans? 40. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in 41. An organic substance that can withstand environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by any enzyme is 42. Which one of the following is correctly matched? 43. Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in 44. Signals for parturition originate from : 45. Which one of the following statements is false in respect of viability of mammalian sperm? 46. The leydig's cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of 47. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The results
expected was : 48. The test-tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques ? 49. What is the figure given below showing in particular ?
50. A normal - visioned man whose father was colour bilind, marries a woman whose father was also
colour - blind. They have 51. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1 : 2
: 1. It represents 52. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the
complementary RNA stand sequence 53. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is called 54. Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA ? 55. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in 56. Removal of RNA polymerase -III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of 57. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other
geographical areas is known 58. Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and
divergent evolution ? 59. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, with
short stature, heavy 60. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his
ancestors ? 61. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in 62. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that 63. Which one of the following in not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are ? 64. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of 65. Which part would be most suitable for raising virus free plants for microporpagation ? 66. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching ? 67. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given 68. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of : 69. A nitrogen - fixing microbe associated with Azolla in rice fields is 70. Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pests/diseases using
microbes ? 71. The figure below is the diagrammatic respesentation o the E.Coli vector pBR 322. Which one of the
given options correctl 72. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for 73. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called 74. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR ? 75. For transformation, micro - particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene are made up of 76. Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with
vitamin 'A' deficiency 77. Giiven below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers. What could be one of the possibilities about certain
organisms at some 78. Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem? 79. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem ? 80. Identify the possible link "A" in the following food chain :
Plant → insect → frog →"A"→ Eagle 81. The upright pyramid of number is absent in 82. Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of biodiversity? 83. Measuring biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a method used for 84. In an area where DDT had been used extensively, the population of birds declined significantly
because : 85. Which one of the following is a wrong statement? 86. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes because they lack 87. Water containing cavities in vascular bundles are found in 88. Closed vascular bundles lack 89. Companion cells are closely associated with 90. The common bottle cork is a product of 91. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are : 92. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta americana 93. Select the the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane 94. What is true about ribosomes ? 95. Which one of the following does not differ in E.coli and Chlamydomonas ? 96. The highest number of species in the world
is represented by 97. Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell division. Which is this s 98. Widal Test is carried out to test : 99. Yeast is used in the production of 100. In which one of the following options the two
examples are correctly matched with their
particular type of immunity?
Chemistry
1. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with $$l$$ = 3 and n = 4 is 2. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is 3. Identify the wrong statement in the following. 4. Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e., having the same shape and hybridization) ? 5. Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and one lone pair arround the central atom ? 6. Bond order of 1.5 is shown by 7. The pair of species with the same bond order is 8. 50 mL of each gas A and of gas B takes 150 and 200 seconds respectively for effusing through a pin hole under the simila 9. In which of the following reactions, standard reaction entropy change ($$\Delta $$So) is positive and standard Gibb's en 10. Standard enthalpy of vaporisation $$\Delta $$vapHo for water at 100oC is 40.66 kJ mol$$-$$1. The internal energy of vapo 11. The enthalpy of fusion of water is 1.435 kcal/mol. The molar entropy change for the melting of ice at 0oC is 12. pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12. The value of solubility product (Ksp) of Ba(OH)2 is 13. Equimolar solutions of the following substances were prepared separately. Which one of these will record the highest pH 14. Buffer solutions have constant acidity and alkalinity because 15. Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is 16. Which nomenclature is not according to IUPAC system? 17. In the following reaction
The major product is 18. Which of the following acids does not exhibit optical isomerism? 19. In the following sequence of reactions
the end product (C) is 20. When Cl2 gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation number of chlorine changes from 21. A mixture of potassium chlorate, oxalic acid and sulphuric acid is heated. During the reaction which element undergoes m 22. Which one of the alkali metals, forms only, the normal oxide, M2O on heating in air? 23. The ease of adsorption of the hydrated alkali metal ions on an ion-exchange resins follows the order : 24. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B), acetic acid (C) an 25. CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by 26. Predict the products in the given reaction.
27. Acetone is treated with excess of ethanol in the presence of hydrochloric acid. The product obtained is 28. Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes the disease 29. Which one of the following sets of monosaccharides forms sucrose? 30. Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer? 31. Which of the following statements is false? 32. A metal crystallises with a face-centred cubic lattice. The edge of the unit cell is 408 pm. The diameter of the metal a 33. The number of octahedral void(s) per atom present in a cubic close-packed structure is 34. pA and pB are the vapour pressure of pure liquid components, A and B, respectively of an ideal binary solution. If xA re 35. Limiting molar conductivity of NH4OH
$$\left[ {} \right.$$i.e. $$\Lambda _{m\left( {N{H_4}OH} \right)}^0$$$$\left 36. In a reaction, A + B $$ \to $$ product, rate is doubled when the concentration of B is doubled, and rate increases by a 37. In a zero-order reaction, for every 10oC rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature is increased from 38. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, the value of 1/n is 39. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about enzyme catalysis? 40. The protecting power of lyophilic colloidal sol is expressed in terms of 41. Which of the following statements is not valid for oxoacids of phosphorus? 42. In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits highest oxidation state? 43. Sulphur trioxide can be obtained by which of the following reaction? 44. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous oxide with 45. Aluminium is extracted from alumina (Al2O3) by electrolysis of a molten mixture of 46. Which one of the following is a mineral of iron? 47. Which of the statements is not true? 48. Identify the alloy containing a non-metal as a constituent in it. 49. Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour? 50. Which one of the following statements regarding photochemical smog is not correct?
Physics
1. The damping force on an oscillator is directly proportional to the velocity. The units of the constant of proportionalit 2. The motion of a particle along a straight line is described by equation x = 8 + 12t $$-$$ t3 where x is in metre and t i 3. The horizontal range and the maximum height of a projectile are equal. The angle of projection of the projectile is 4. A particle has initial velocity $$\left( {2\overrightarrow i + 3\overrightarrow j } \right)$$ and acceleration $$\left( 5. Two spheres A and B of masses m1 and m2 respectively collide. A is at rest initially and B is moving with velocity v alo 6. A solid cylinder of mass 3 kg is rolling on a horizontal surface with velocity 4 m s$$-$$1. It collides with a horizonta 7. The potential energy of a particle in a force field is $$U = {A \over {{r^2}}} - {B \over r}$$ where A and B are positiv 8. Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg respectively, are at the opposite ends of a boat. The length of the boat is 3.0 m 9. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along 10. A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the banking angle is 45o, the 11. ABC is an equilateral triangle with O as its centre. $${\overrightarrow F _1},{\overrightarrow F _2}$$ and $${\overright 12. The height at which the weight of a body becomes $${\left( {{1 \over {16}}} \right)^{th}}$$, its weight on the surface 13. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 5R above the surface of the earth, R being the radius of 14. A spherical planet has a mass MP and diameter DP. A particle of mass m falling freely near the surface of this planet wi 15. If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a black body, what would be the temperature of the star, in which the rate o 16. Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated to 300 K at constant pressure of 1 atm. The rate of heating is constant. Which one of th 17. One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial state A to final state B via two processes : It first undergoes isothermal 18. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle ABCD as shown in figure. Heat rejected by the gas during the cycle is 19. When a string is divided into three segments of length $$l$$1, $$l$$2 and $$l$$3 the fundamental frequencies of these th 20. Two sources of sound placed close to each other, are emitting progressive waves given by
y1 = 4sin600$$\pi $$t and y2 21. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field of intensity E. The dipole acquires a position such that t 22. What is the flux through a cube of side $$a$$ if a point charge of q is at one of its corner? 23. Four point charges $$-$$Q, $$-$$q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each corner of the square. The relation between Q and q 24. In the circuit shown the cells A and B have negligible resistances. For VA = 12 V, R1 = 500 $$\Omega $$ and R = 100 $$\ 25. A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R0 = 12 $$\Omega $$. Find the points A and B, as shown in the figure, at wh 26. If voltage across a bulb rated 220 volt-100 watt drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of the rated value by 27. A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be converted into an ammeter of 25 ampare range. The value (in ohm) of ne 28. Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other. The currents flo 29. An alternating electric field, of frequency $$v$$, is applied across the does (radius = R) of a cyclotron that is being 30. A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It 31. A coil of resistance 400 $$\Omega $$ is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux $$\phi $$ (Wb) linked with the 32. The current $$(I)$$ in the inductance is varying with time according to the plot shown in figure.
Which one of the foll 33. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and a.c. voltage source are all connected in series. When L is removed from the circuit 34. The electric field associated with an em wave in vacuum is given by
E = $$\widehat i$$ 40 cos (kz $$-$$ 6 $$ \times $$ 35. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence i, on one face of a prism of angle A (assumed to be small ) and emer 36. When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane sheet of glass. Thi 37. A concave mirror of focal length $$f$$1 is placed at a distance of d from a convex lens of focal length $$f$$2. A beam o 38. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance between the objective and e 39. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength 0.6 $$\mu $$m. Assuming it to be 25% efficient in converting 40. Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground state irradiates a 41. An $$\alpha $$-particle moves in a circular path of radius 0.83 cm in the presence of a magnetic field of 0.25 Wb/m2. Th 42. A mixture consists of two radioactive materials A1 and A2 with half lives of 20 s and 10 s respectively. Initially the 43. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The velocity that the 44. Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to second excited state and then from second excited to t 45. If the nuclear radius of 27Al is 3.6 fermi, the approximate nuclear radius of 64Cu in fermi is 46. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the battery is
47. In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2 k$$\Omega $$ is 2 V. If the 48. C and Si both have same lattice structure; having 4 bonding electrons in each. However, C is insulator where as Si is in 49. Transfer characteristics [output voltage (V0) vs input voltage (Vi)] for a base biased transistor in CE configuration is 50. The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage wave forms across A, B and C are
1
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Out of Syllabus
Transfer characteristics [output voltage (V0) vs input voltage (Vi)] for a base biased transistor in CE configuration is as shown in the figure. For using transistor as a switch, it is used
A
in region III
B
both in region (I) and (III)
C
in region II
D
in region I
2
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage wave forms across A, B and C are as given. The logic circuit gate is
A
OR gate
B
NOR gate
C
AND gate
D
NAND gate
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
100
Chemistry
50
Physics
50
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