Biology
1. Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass through the cell membrane of 2. During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during 3. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at onc 4. People who have migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohtang Pass about six months back 5. Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in humans?
6. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system. 7. Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing as such but is otherwise very much required? 8. The human hind brain comprises three parts, one of which is 9. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70 $$-$$ 80 percent) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in which p 10. What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans? 11. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front on opening the door. Which one of the following is 12. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The results
expected was : 13. An organic substance that can withstand environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by any enzyme is 14. Signals for parturition originate from : 15. Which one of the following statements is false in respect of viability of mammalian sperm? 16. Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in 17. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in 18. Which one of the following is correctly matched? 19. The leydig's cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of 20. What is the figure given below showing in particular ?
21. The test-tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques ? 22. A normal - visioned man whose father was colour bilind, marries a woman whose father was also
colour - blind. They have 23. The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in flowers of 24. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd ftom milk and in production of antibiotics are the ones c 25. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having 26. Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its or their named taxonomic group? 27. Which one of the following is a correct statement? 28. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as 29. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group 30. Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses? 31. Nuclear membrane is absent in 32. Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their nutrition? 33. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched, whereas the 34. Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from 35. Cymose inflorescence is present in 36. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1 : 2
: 1. It represents 37. How many plants in the list given below have composite fruits that develop from an inflorescence?
Walnut, poppy, radish 38. Phyllode is present in 39. Placentation in tomato and lemon is 40. Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the family 41. The coconut water and the edible part of coconut are equivalent to 42. The given diagrammatic representation shows one of the caregories of small molecular weight organic compounds in the liv 43. Which one out of A - D given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino acid?
44. Which one of the following is wrong statement? 45. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world? 46. The correct sequence of cell organelles during photores piration is 47. A process that makes important difference between C3 and C4 plants is 48. Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem? 49. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem ? 50. Giiven below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers. What could be one of the possibilities about certain
organisms at some 51. The upright pyramid of number is absent in 52. Identify the possible link "A" in the following food chain :
Plant → insect → frog →"A"→ Eagle 53. Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of biodiversity? 54. The common bottle cork is a product of 55. Water containing cavities in vascular bundles are found in 56. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes because they lack 57. Closed vascular bundles lack 58. Companion cells are closely associated with 59. For transformation, micro - particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene are made up of 60. Which one of the following does not differ in E.coli and Chlamydomonas ? 61. Select the the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane 62. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are : 63. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta americana 64. What is true about ribosomes ? 65. Widal Test is carried out to test : 66. In which one of the following options the two
examples are correctly matched with their
particular type of immunity? 67. Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell division. Which is this s 68. The highest number of species in the world
is represented by 69. Yeast is used in the production of 70. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of 71. Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA ? 72. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is called 73. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the
complementary RNA stand sequence 74. Removal of RNA polymerase -III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of 75. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in 76. Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and
divergent evolution ? 77. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his
ancestors ? 78. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other
geographical areas is known 79. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, with
short stature, heavy 80. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching ? 81. A nitrogen - fixing microbe associated with Azolla in rice fields is 82. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in 83. Which statement is wrong for viruses? 84. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given 85. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that 86. Which part would be most suitable for raising virus free plants for microporpagation ? 87. Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pests/diseases using
microbes ? 88. Which one of the following in not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are ? 89. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of : 90. The figure below is the diagrammatic respesentation o the E.Coli vector pBR 322. Which one of the
given options correctl 91. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for 92. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR ? 93. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called 94. Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with
vitamin 'A' deficiency
Chemistry
1. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with $$l$$ = 3 and n = 4 is 2. CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by 3. Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes the disease 4. Which one of the following sets of monosaccharides forms sucrose? 5. pA and pB are the vapour pressure of pure liquid components, A and B, respectively of an ideal binary solution. If xA re 6. In a zero-order reaction, for every 10oC rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature is increased from 7. Limiting molar conductivity of NH4OH
$$\left[ {} \right.$$i.e. $$\Lambda _{m\left( {N{H_4}OH} \right)}^0$$$$\left 8. In a reaction, A + B $$ \to $$ product, rate is doubled when the concentration of B is doubled, and rate increases by a 9. In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits highest oxidation state? 10. A mixture of potassium chlorate, oxalic acid and sulphuric acid is heated. During the reaction which element undergoes m 11. Which of the following statements is not valid for oxoacids of phosphorus? 12. Sulphur trioxide can be obtained by which of the following reaction? 13. Which of the statements is not true? 14. Identify the alloy containing a non-metal as a constituent in it. 15. Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour? 16. Which nomenclature is not according to IUPAC system? 17. Identify the wrong statement in the following. 18. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is 19. Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e., having the same shape and hybridization) ? 20. The pair of species with the same bond order is 21. Bond order of 1.5 is shown by 22. Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and one lone pair arround the central atom ? 23. In which of the following reactions, standard reaction entropy change ($$\Delta $$So) is positive and standard Gibb's en 24. Standard enthalpy of vaporisation $$\Delta $$vapHo for water at 100oC is 40.66 kJ mol$$-$$1. The internal energy of vapo 25. The enthalpy of fusion of water is 1.435 kcal/mol. The molar entropy change for the melting of ice at 0oC is 26. pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12. The value of solubility product (Ksp) of Ba(OH)2 is 27. Buffer solutions have constant acidity and alkalinity because 28. Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is 29. Equimolar solutions of the following substances were prepared separately. Which one of these will record the highest pH 30. Which of the following acids does not exhibit optical isomerism? 31. In the following reaction
The major product is 32. In the following sequence of reactions
the end product (C) is 33. When Cl2 gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation number of chlorine changes from 34. Acetone is treated with excess of ethanol in the presence of hydrochloric acid. The product obtained is 35. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B), acetic acid (C) an 36. Predict the products in the given reaction.
Physics
1. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence i, on one face of a prism of angle A (assumed to be small ) and emer 2. A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R0 = 12 $$\Omega $$. Find the points A and B, as shown in the figure, at wh 3. A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It 4. Four point charges $$-$$Q, $$-$$q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each corner of the square. The relation between Q and q 5. If voltage across a bulb rated 220 volt-100 watt drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of the rated value by 6. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and a.c. voltage source are all connected in series. When L is removed from the circuit 7. The current $$(I)$$ in the inductance is varying with time according to the plot shown in figure.
Which one of the foll 8. A coil of resistance 400 $$\Omega $$ is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux $$\phi $$ (Wb) linked with the 9. The electric field associated with an em wave in vacuum is given by
E = $$\widehat i$$ 40 cos (kz $$-$$ 6 $$ \times $$ 10. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength 0.6 $$\mu $$m. Assuming it to be 25% efficient in converting 11. An $$\alpha $$-particle moves in a circular path of radius 0.83 cm in the presence of a magnetic field of 0.25 Wb/m2. Th 12. Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground state irradiates a 13. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance between the objective and e 14. Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other. The currents flo 15. When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane sheet of glass. Thi 16. A concave mirror of focal length $$f$$1 is placed at a distance of d from a convex lens of focal length $$f$$2. A beam o 17. Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to second excited state and then from second excited to t 18. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The velocity that the 19. The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage wave forms across A, B and C are 20. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the battery is
21. C and Si both have same lattice structure; having 4 bonding electrons in each. However, C is insulator where as Si is in 22. A spherical planet has a mass MP and diameter DP. A particle of mass m falling freely near the surface of this planet wi 23. The motion of a particle along a straight line is described by equation x = 8 + 12t $$-$$ t3 where x is in metre and t i 24. Two spheres A and B of masses m1 and m2 respectively collide. A is at rest initially and B is moving with velocity v alo 25. The horizontal range and the maximum height of a projectile are equal. The angle of projection of the projectile is 26. The potential energy of a particle in a force field is $$U = {A \over {{r^2}}} - {B \over r}$$ where A and B are positiv 27. A particle has initial velocity $$\left( {2\overrightarrow i + 3\overrightarrow j } \right)$$ and acceleration $$\left( 28. A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the banking angle is 45o, the 29. A solid cylinder of mass 3 kg is rolling on a horizontal surface with velocity 4 m s$$-$$1. It collides with a horizonta 30. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along 31. ABC is an equilateral triangle with O as its centre. $${\overrightarrow F _1},{\overrightarrow F _2}$$ and $${\overright 32. Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg respectively, are at the opposite ends of a boat. The length of the boat is 3.0 m 33. Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated to 300 K at constant pressure of 1 atm. The rate of heating is constant. Which one of th 34. The height at which the weight of a body becomes $${\left( {{1 \over {16}}} \right)^{th}}$$, its weight on the surface 35. If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a black body, what would be the temperature of the star, in which the rate o 36. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 5R above the surface of the earth, R being the radius of 37. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle ABCD as shown in figure. Heat rejected by the gas during the cycle is 38. One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial state A to final state B via two processes : It first undergoes isothermal 39. Two sources of sound placed close to each other, are emitting progressive waves given by
y1 = 4sin600$$\pi $$t and y2 40. When a string is divided into three segments of length $$l$$1, $$l$$2 and $$l$$3 the fundamental frequencies of these th 41. A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be converted into an ammeter of 25 ampare range. The value (in ohm) of ne 42. An alternating electric field, of frequency $$v$$, is applied across the does (radius = R) of a cyclotron that is being 43. What is the flux through a cube of side $$a$$ if a point charge of q is at one of its corner? 44. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field of intensity E. The dipole acquires a position such that t 45. In the circuit shown the cells A and B have negligible resistances. For VA = 12 V, R1 = 500 $$\Omega $$ and R = 100 $$\ 46. The damping force on an oscillator is directly proportional to the velocity. The units of the constant of proportionalit
1
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta americana
A
Males bear a pair of short thread like anal styles
B
There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut
C
Nervous system located dorsally, consists of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a pair of
longitudinal connective
D
Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts
2
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
What is true about ribosomes ?
A
These are self - splicing introns of some RNAs.
B
These are found only in eukaryotic cells
C
There are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins
D
The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80 S, where 'S' stands for sedimentation coefficient.
3
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Widal Test is carried out to test :
A
HIV/AIDS
B
Typhoid fever
C
Malaria
D
Diabetes mellitus
4
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
In which one of the following options the two
examples are correctly matched with their
particular type of immunity?
A
| Examples | Types of immunity |
|---|---|
| Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes |
Cellular barriers |
B
| Examples | Types of immunity |
|---|---|
| Anti-tetanus and antisnake bite injection |
Active immunity |
C
| Examples | Types of immunity |
|---|---|
| Saliva in mouth and
Tear in eyes |
Physical barriers |
D
| Examples | Types of immunity |
|---|---|
| Mucus coating of
epithelium lining the urinogenital tract-and the HCl in stomach |
Physiological barriers |
Paper Analysis
Total Questions
Biology 94
Chemistry 36
Physics 46
More Papers of NEET
NEET 2026 NEET 2025 NEET 2024 (Re-Examination) NEET 2024 NEET 2023 Manipur NEET 2023 NEET 2022 Phase 2 NEET 2022 Phase 1 NEET 2021 NEET 2020 Phase 1 NEET 2019 NEET 2018 NEET 2017 NEET 2016 Phase 2 NEET 2016 Phase 1 AIPMT 2015 AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper AIPMT 2014 NEET 2013 (Karnataka) NEET 2013 AIPMT 2012 Mains AIPMT 2012 Prelims AIPMT 2011 Mains AIPMT 2011 Prelims AIPMT 2010 Mains AIPMT 2010 Prelims AIPMT 2009 AIPMT 2008 AIPMT 2007 AIPMT 2006 AIPMT 2005 AIPMT 2004 AIPMT 2003 AIPMT 2002 AIPMT 2001 AIPMT 2000
NEET Papers
All year-wise previous year question papers
2014
2009
2008
2007
2006
2005
2004
2003
2002
2001
2000