Biology
1. Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass through the cell membrane of 2. A process that makes important difference between C3 and C4 plants is 3. The correct sequence of cell organelles during photores piration is 4. Which one of the following is the correct statement for respiration in humans?
5. People who have migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohtang Pass about six months back 6. A certain road accident patient with unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion. His one doctor friend at onc 7. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70 $$-$$ 80 percent) from the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in which p 8. Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular or skeletal system. 9. Which part of the human ear plays no role in hearing as such but is otherwise very much required? 10. The human hind brain comprises three parts, one of which is 11. A person entering an empty room suddenly finds a snake right in front on opening the door. Which one of the following is 12. What is correct to say about the hormone action in humans? 13. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in 14. An organic substance that can withstand environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by any enzyme is 15. Which one of the following is correctly matched? 16. Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is assured in 17. Which one of the following statements is false in respect of viability of mammalian sperm? 18. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The results
expected was : 19. Signals for parturition originate from : 20. The leydig's cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of 21. The test-tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques ? 22. What is the figure given below showing in particular ?
23. A normal - visioned man whose father was colour bilind, marries a woman whose father was also
colour - blind. They have 24. Cymose inflorescence is present in 25. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group 26. Nuclear membrane is absent in 27. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as 28. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to humans in making curd ftom milk and in production of antibiotics are the ones c 29. Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their nutrition? 30. Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its or their named taxonomic group? 31. Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of mosses? 32. Which one of the following is a correct statement? 33. Cycas and Adiantum resemble each other in having 34. Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from 35. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched, whereas the 36. Placentation in tomato and lemon is 37. F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are same as 1 : 2
: 1. It represents 38. Phyllode is present in 39. The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in flowers of 40. How many plants in the list given below have composite fruits that develop from an inflorescence?
Walnut, poppy, radish 41. The coconut water and the edible part of coconut are equivalent to 42. Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the family 43. Which one out of A - D given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino acid?
44. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world? 45. The given diagrammatic representation shows one of the caregories of small molecular weight organic compounds in the liv 46. Which one of the following is wrong statement? 47. During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates during 48. Companion cells are closely associated with 49. Giiven below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers. What could be one of the possibilities about certain
organisms at some 50. Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an ecosystem? 51. Which one of the following is not a gaseous biogeochemical cycle in ecosystem ? 52. Identify the possible link "A" in the following food chain :
Plant → insect → frog →"A"→ Eagle 53. The upright pyramid of number is absent in 54. Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of biodiversity? 55. Gymnosperms are also called soft wood spermatophytes because they lack 56. Water containing cavities in vascular bundles are found in 57. Closed vascular bundles lack 58. Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with
vitamin 'A' deficiency 59. The common bottle cork is a product of 60. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are : 61. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta americana 62. Select the the correct statement from the following regarding cell membrane 63. What is true about ribosomes ? 64. Which one of the following does not differ in E.coli and Chlamydomonas ? 65. The highest number of species in the world
is represented by 66. Yeast is used in the production of 67. Given below is the representation of a certain event at a particular stage of a type of cell division. Which is this s 68. Widal Test is carried out to test : 69. In which one of the following options the two
examples are correctly matched with their
particular type of immunity? 70. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of 71. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is called 72. Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA ? 73. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the
complementary RNA stand sequence 74. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in 75. Removal of RNA polymerase -III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of 76. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other
geographical areas is known 77. Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and
divergent evolution ? 78. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his
ancestors ? 79. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, with
short stature, heavy 80. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in 81. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that 82. Which one of the following in not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are ? 83. Which statement is wrong for viruses? 84. Which part would be most suitable for raising virus free plants for microporpagation ? 85. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching ? 86. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given 87. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used commercially in the production of : 88. A nitrogen - fixing microbe associated with Azolla in rice fields is 89. Which one of the following is an example of carrying out biological control of pests/diseases using
microbes ? 90. The figure below is the diagrammatic respesentation o the E.Coli vector pBR 322. Which one of the
given options correctl 91. PCR and Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism are the methods for 92. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called 93. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR ? 94. For transformation, micro - particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene are made up of
Chemistry
1. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with $$l$$ = 3 and n = 4 is 2. Predict the products in the given reaction.
3. Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes the disease 4. Which one of the following sets of monosaccharides forms sucrose? 5. pA and pB are the vapour pressure of pure liquid components, A and B, respectively of an ideal binary solution. If xA re 6. Limiting molar conductivity of NH4OH
$$\left[ {} \right.$$i.e. $$\Lambda _{m\left( {N{H_4}OH} \right)}^0$$$$\left 7. In a reaction, A + B $$ \to $$ product, rate is doubled when the concentration of B is doubled, and rate increases by a 8. In a zero-order reaction, for every 10oC rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature is increased from 9. Acetone is treated with excess of ethanol in the presence of hydrochloric acid. The product obtained is 10. Which of the following statements is not valid for oxoacids of phosphorus? 11. In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits highest oxidation state? 12. Sulphur trioxide can be obtained by which of the following reaction? 13. Which of the statements is not true? 14. Identify the alloy containing a non-metal as a constituent in it. 15. Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour? 16. Buffer solutions have constant acidity and alkalinity because 17. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is 18. Identify the wrong statement in the following. 19. Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e., having the same shape and hybridization) ? 20. Bond order of 1.5 is shown by 21. Which of the following species contains three bond pairs and one lone pair arround the central atom ? 22. The pair of species with the same bond order is 23. In which of the following reactions, standard reaction entropy change ($$\Delta $$So) is positive and standard Gibb's en 24. Standard enthalpy of vaporisation $$\Delta $$vapHo for water at 100oC is 40.66 kJ mol$$-$$1. The internal energy of vapo 25. The enthalpy of fusion of water is 1.435 kcal/mol. The molar entropy change for the melting of ice at 0oC is 26. pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12. The value of solubility product (Ksp) of Ba(OH)2 is 27. Equimolar solutions of the following substances were prepared separately. Which one of these will record the highest pH 28. Among the following compounds the one that is most reactive towards electrophilic nitration is 29. Which nomenclature is not according to IUPAC system? 30. In the following reaction
The major product is 31. Which of the following acids does not exhibit optical isomerism? 32. In the following sequence of reactions
the end product (C) is 33. When Cl2 gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation number of chlorine changes from 34. A mixture of potassium chlorate, oxalic acid and sulphuric acid is heated. During the reaction which element undergoes m 35. CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by 36. The correct order of decreasing acid strength of trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B), acetic acid (C) an
Physics
1. Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground state irradiates a 2. A milli voltmeter of 25 milli volt range is to be converted into an ammeter of 25 ampare range. The value (in ohm) of ne 3. Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other. The currents flo 4. An alternating electric field, of frequency $$v$$, is applied across the does (radius = R) of a cyclotron that is being 5. A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It 6. A coil of resistance 400 $$\Omega $$ is placed in a magnetic field. If the magnetic flux $$\phi $$ (Wb) linked with the 7. The current $$(I)$$ in the inductance is varying with time according to the plot shown in figure.
Which one of the foll 8. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and a.c. voltage source are all connected in series. When L is removed from the circuit 9. The electric field associated with an em wave in vacuum is given by
E = $$\widehat i$$ 40 cos (kz $$-$$ 6 $$ \times $$ 10. When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane sheet of glass. Thi 11. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence i, on one face of a prism of angle A (assumed to be small ) and emer 12. A concave mirror of focal length $$f$$1 is placed at a distance of d from a convex lens of focal length $$f$$2. A beam o 13. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance between the objective and e 14. If voltage across a bulb rated 220 volt-100 watt drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage of the rated value by 15. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength 0.6 $$\mu $$m. Assuming it to be 25% efficient in converting 16. An $$\alpha $$-particle moves in a circular path of radius 0.83 cm in the presence of a magnetic field of 0.25 Wb/m2. Th 17. Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to second excited state and then from second excited to t 18. An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The velocity that the 19. Two ideal diodes are connected to a battery as shown in the circuit. The current supplied by the battery is
20. C and Si both have same lattice structure; having 4 bonding electrons in each. However, C is insulator where as Si is in 21. The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage wave forms across A, B and C are 22. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 5R above the surface of the earth, R being the radius of 23. The motion of a particle along a straight line is described by equation x = 8 + 12t $$-$$ t3 where x is in metre and t i 24. The horizontal range and the maximum height of a projectile are equal. The angle of projection of the projectile is 25. A particle has initial velocity $$\left( {2\overrightarrow i + 3\overrightarrow j } \right)$$ and acceleration $$\left( 26. The potential energy of a particle in a force field is $$U = {A \over {{r^2}}} - {B \over r}$$ where A and B are positiv 27. Two spheres A and B of masses m1 and m2 respectively collide. A is at rest initially and B is moving with velocity v alo 28. A solid cylinder of mass 3 kg is rolling on a horizontal surface with velocity 4 m s$$-$$1. It collides with a horizonta 29. When a mass is rotating in a plane about a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed along 30. Two persons of masses 55 kg and 65 kg respectively, are at the opposite ends of a boat. The length of the boat is 3.0 m 31. A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the banking angle is 45o, the 32. ABC is an equilateral triangle with O as its centre. $${\overrightarrow F _1},{\overrightarrow F _2}$$ and $${\overright 33. The height at which the weight of a body becomes $${\left( {{1 \over {16}}} \right)^{th}}$$, its weight on the surface 34. A spherical planet has a mass MP and diameter DP. A particle of mass m falling freely near the surface of this planet wi 35. Liquid oxygen at 50 K is heated to 300 K at constant pressure of 1 atm. The rate of heating is constant. Which one of th 36. If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a black body, what would be the temperature of the star, in which the rate o 37. One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial state A to final state B via two processes : It first undergoes isothermal 38. A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle ABCD as shown in figure. Heat rejected by the gas during the cycle is 39. When a string is divided into three segments of length $$l$$1, $$l$$2 and $$l$$3 the fundamental frequencies of these th 40. Two sources of sound placed close to each other, are emitting progressive waves given by
y1 = 4sin600$$\pi $$t and y2 41. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field of intensity E. The dipole acquires a position such that t 42. Four point charges $$-$$Q, $$-$$q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each corner of the square. The relation between Q and q 43. What is the flux through a cube of side $$a$$ if a point charge of q is at one of its corner? 44. In the circuit shown the cells A and B have negligible resistances. For VA = 12 V, R1 = 500 $$\Omega $$ and R = 100 $$\ 45. A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R0 = 12 $$\Omega $$. Find the points A and B, as shown in the figure, at wh 46. The damping force on an oscillator is directly proportional to the velocity. The units of the constant of proportionalit
1
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is
A
5, 1, 1, + 1/2
B
6, 0, 0, +1/2
C
5, 0, 0, +1/2
D
5, 1, 0, +1/2
2
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Identify the wrong statement in the following.
A
Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic radius.
B
Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic radius.
C
Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the periodic table.
D
Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one moves across from left to right in the 2nd period of the periodic table.
3
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e., having the same shape and hybridization) ?
A
[BCl3 and BrCl3]
B
[NH3 and NO$$_3^ - $$]
C
[NF3 and BF3]
D
[BF$$_4^ - $$ and NH$$_4^ + $$]
4
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Bond order of 1.5 is shown by
A
O2+
B
O2$$-$$
C
O22$$-$$
D
O2
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
94
Chemistry
36
Physics
46
More papers of NEET
NEET 2024 (Re-Examination)
NEET 2024
NEET 2023 Manipur
NEET 2023
NEET 2022 Phase 2
NEET 2022 Phase 1
NEET 2021
NEET 2020 Phase 1
NEET 2019
NEET 2018
NEET 2017
NEET 2016 Phase 2
NEET 2016 Phase 1
AIPMT 2015
AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper
AIPMT 2014
NEET 2013 (Karnataka)
NEET 2013
AIPMT 2012 Mains
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
AIPMT 2011 Mains
AIPMT 2011 Prelims
AIPMT 2010 Mains
AIPMT 2010 Prelims
AIPMT 2009
AIPMT 2008
AIPMT 2007
AIPMT 2006
AIPMT 2005
AIPMT 2004
AIPMT 2003
AIPMT 2002
AIPMT 2001
AIPMT 2000
NEET
Papers
2014
2009
2008
2007
2006
2005
2004
2003
2002
2001
2000