Biology
1. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is 2. How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose, if the complete oxidation of one mole 3. Farmers in a particular region were concerned that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause decrease i 4. How does pruning help in making the hedge dense? 5. Treatment of seeds at low temperature under moist conditions to break its dormancy is called 6. An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is 7. The majority of carbon dioxide produced by our body cells is transported to the lungs as 8. People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at altitud 9. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? 10. Which one of the following has an open circulatory system? 11. Bowman's glands are found in 12. During photorespiration, the oxygen consuming reaction(s) occur in 13. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by 14. Which of the following is an accumulation and release center of neurohormones? 15. A steroid hormone which regulates glucose metabolism is 16. Which one of the following is not a secondary messenger in hormone action? 17. Which one of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter? 18. Which one of the following statements is correct? 19. Which hormone causes dilation of blood vessels, increased oxygen consumption and glucogenesis? 20. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is 21. In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo is represented by 22. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by 23. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary
hormone known as- 24. Annual migration does not occur in the case of 25. Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the activity of 26. Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a piece of bread?
A. 27. In which one of the following sets of animals do all the four give birth to young ones? 28. Which one of the following is not a living fossil? 29. Peat moss is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because 30. Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of 31. Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its three examples? 32. Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach, and crab are 33. Withdrawal of which of the following hormones
is the immediate cause of menstruation ? 34. Conifers differ from grasses in the 35. Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the characteristic of 36. In a moss, the sporophyte 37. In which of the following fruits, the edible part is the aril ? 38. Pentamerous actinomorphic flowers, bicarpellary ovary with oblique septa, and fruit capsule or berry, are characteristic 39. What is common about Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis and Giardia? 40. Pineapple (ananas) fruit develops from 41. Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of a young cob of maize are 42. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called 43. In photosystem I, the first electron acceptor is 44. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot
of biodiversity in India ? 45. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying 46. Restriction endonuclease - 47. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop.
When released for cultivation, it will help in 48. Two microbes found to be very useful in
genetic engineering are- 49. Which of the following pairs of an animal and a
plant represents endangered organisms in India ? 50. Which one of the following is not used for
construction of ecological pyramids ? 51. Which one of the following is the correctly
matched pair of an endangered animal and a
National Park ? 52. Niche overlap indicates- 53. Which one of the following is not included
under in-situ conservation ? 54. A common structural feature of vessel elements
and sieve tube elements is- 55. Which of the following statements regarding
mitochondrial membrane is not correct ? 56. Which of the following statements regarding
cilia is not correct ? 57. A major breakthrough in the studies of cells
came with the development of electron
microscope. This is because 58. Areolar connective tissue joins- 59. Earthworms are - 60. Mast cells secrete- 61. How many different kinds of gametes will be
produced by a plant having the genotype
AABbCC ? 62. The formula for exponential population growth is- 63. Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington's chorea
are- 64. In Mendel's experiments with garden pea, round
seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled
seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon ( 65. Phenotype of an organism is the result of- 66. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from
the African population because- 67. If a colour blind woman marries a normal visioned
man, their sons will be 68. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is
approximately - 69. Test cross involves- 70. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between
tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein
synthesis ? 71. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means
that- 72. Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is
decided by the sequence of - 73. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was
postulated by - 74. Which one of the following is an example of
polygenic inheritance ? 75. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by
the- 76. Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era
characterized by- 77. Which one of the following amino-acids was not
found to be synthesized in Miller's experiment ? 78. An important evidence in favour of organic
evolution is the occurrence of- 79. Praying mantis is a good example of- 80. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that
causes botulism is- 81. Antibodies in our body are complex- 82. The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a- 83. A person showing unpredictable moods,
outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour
and conflicts with others is suffering
Chemistry
1. In which of the following pairs are both the ions coloured in aqueous solution?
(At. no. : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, 2. [Co(NH3)4(NO2)2]Cl exhibits 3. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (At. no. of Cr = 24) has a magnetic momen of 3.83 B.M. The correct distribution of 3d electrons in the ch 4. More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. The main reason for this is 5. EoFe2+/Fe = $$-$$ 0.441 V and EoFe3+/Fe2+ = 0.771 V, the standard EMF of the reaction Fe + 2Fe3+ $$ \to $$ 3Fe2+ will be 6. Self condensation of two moles of ethyl acetate in presence of sodium ethoxide yields 7. The human body does not produce 8. Which one of the following is a peptide hormone? 9. Which of the following is more basic than aniline? 10. During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable membrane is 11. During the process of digestion, the proteins present in food materials are hydrolysed to amino acids. The two enzymes i 12. Consider the reaction : N2(g) + 3H2(g) $$ \to $$ 2NH3(g)
The equality relationship between $${{d\left[ {N{H_3 13. A solution of acetone in ethanol 14. A solution containing 10 g per dm3 of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol$$-$$1) is isotonic with a 5% solution of a nonvola 15. Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most favoured in 16. For the reaction, 2A + B $$ \to $$ 3C + D, which of the following does not express the reaction rate? 17. A hypothetical electrochemical cell is shown below.
$$A\left| {{A^ + }\left( {xM} \right)} \right|\left| {{B^ + }\left( 18. 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250 g mol$$-$$1) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing poin 19. In which of the following molecules are all the bonds are not equal? 20. The electronegativity difference berween N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole moment of NH3 (1.5D 21. Which of the following is the most basic oxide? 22. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it? 23. The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is 24. Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN to give 25. For the reaction :
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ CO2(g) + 2H2O(l),
$$\Delta $$Hr = $$-$$ 170.8 kJ mol$$-$$1. 26. Given : The mass of electron is 9.11 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$31 kg, Planck constant is 6.626 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$34 J s, the 27. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it ? 28. The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by 29. Which of the following is not isostructural with SiCl4 ? 30. Which of the following species has a linear shape? 31. Which of the following is not a correct statement? 32. Assume each reaction is carried out in an open container. For which reaction will $$\Delta $$H = $$\Delta $$E ? 33. The enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is is $$-$$ 119.5 kJ mol$$-$$1. If resonance energy of benzene is $$-$$ 150 34. Identify the correct statement for change of Gibb's energy for a system ($$\Delta $$Gsystem) at constant temperature and 35. The enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction:
Br2(l) + Cl2(g) $$ \to $$ 2BrCl(g)
are 30 kJ mol$$-$$1 and 105 J K$ 36. The hydrogen ion concentration of a 10$$-$$8 M, HCl aqueous solution at 298 K (Kw = 10$$-$$14) is 37. Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer? 38. The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is 39. The IUPAC name of
is 40. The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is 41. Which of the following is not chiral? 42. Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard reagent yields 43. The major organic product in the reaction is
CH3 $$-$$ O $$-$$ CH(CH3)2 + HI $$ \to $$ products 44. A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis forms a racemic mixture of $$\a 45. In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a compound D.
The structure of D would be
Physics
1. A coil of inductive reactance 31 $$\Omega $$ has a resistance of 8 $$\Omega $$. It is placed in series with a condenser 2. Two cells, having the same e.m.f. are connected in series through an external resistance R. Cells have internal resistan 3. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V volts. After disconnecting the charging battery 4. Power dissipated across the 8 $$\Omega $$ resistor in the circuit shown here is 2 watt. The power dissipated in watt uni 5. A square surface of side L metres is in the plane of the paper. A uniform electric field $$\overrightarrow E $$ (volt/m) 6. Kirchoff's first and second laws of electrical circuits are consequences of 7. An electric dipole of moment $$\overrightarrow p $$ is lying along a uniform electric field $$\overrightarrow E $$. The 8. Two circular coils 1 and 2 are made from the same wire but the radius of the 1st coil is twice that of the 2nd coil. Wha 9. In the circuit shown, if a conducting wire is connected between points A and B, the current in this wire will
10. Two coils of self inductance 2 mH and 8 mH are placed so close together that the effective flux in one coil is completel 11. The core of a transformer is laminated because 12. A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit with an inductor L (of negligible resistance) and a capacitor C in seri 13. When a charged particle moving with velocity $$\overrightarrow v $$ is subjected to a magnetic field of induction $$\ove 14. A photocell employs photoelectric effect to convert 15. When photons of energy h$$\upsilon $$ fall on an aluminimum plate (of work function E0), photoelectrons of maximum kinet 16. In a discharge tube ionization of enclosed gas is produced due to collisions between 17. A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and refractive index 1 18. A convex lens and a concave lens, each having same focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to form a combination of le 19. The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in kg m/s will be 20. The binding energy of deuteron is 2.2 MeV and that of $${}_2^4$$He is 28 MeV. If two deuterons are fused to form one $${ 21. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C.
The voltage waveforms of A, 22. Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by monochromatic radiat 23. A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tube is 24. Two bodies A (of mass 1 kg) and B (of mass 3 kg) are dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m, respectively. The ratio of t 25. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of the particle from O is 26. A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track of radius 100 m, taking 62.8 seconds for every circular lap. The aver 27. The vectors $$\overrightarrow A $$ and $$\overrightarrow B $$ are such that $$\left| {\overrightarrow A + \overrightar 28. For angles of projection of a projectile at angle (45o $$-$$ $$\theta $$) and (45o + $$\theta $$), the horizontal range 29. A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s strikes a hand wall at an angle of 30o with the wall. It is reflected with t 30. A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force which causes a displacement s in metres in it, given by the relation s = $ 31. A uniform rod AB of length $$l$$ and mass m is free to rotate about point A. The rod is released from rest in the horizo 32. The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm the potential ener 33. 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up an inclined plane of height 10 m. Work done against friction is (Take g 34. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass M about an axis touching the disc at its diameter 35. A black body at 1227oC emits radiations with maximum intensity at a wavelength of 5000 $$\mathop A\limits^ \circ $$. If 36. The earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. A platform is arranged at a height R from the surface of the earth. The 37. A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross-section A floats in a liquid of density $$\rho $$. If it is given a smal 38. Two vibrating tuning forks produce waves given by y1 = 4 sin 500$$\pi $$t and y2 = 2 sin506 $$\pi $$t. Number of beats p 39. Which one of the following statements is true ? 40. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas is (7/2) R. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressur 41. Two sound waves with wavelengths 5.0 m and 5.5. m respectively, each propagate in a gas with velocity 330 m/s. We expect 42. The time of reverberation of a room A is one second. What will be the time (in seconds of reverberation of a room, havin 43. A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. By how much should the temperature of source be increas 44. A transverse wave propagating along x-axis is represented by y(x, t) = 8.0 sin (0.5 $$\pi $$x $$-$$ 4$$\pi $$t $$-$$ $$\ 45. Curie temperature above which 46. Which one of the following represents forward bias diode ? 47. The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by v = at + $${b \over {t + c}}$$, where a, b and c are constants. The d
1
AIPMT 2006
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
A solution of acetone in ethanol
A
obeys Raoult's law
B
shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law
C
shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law
D
behaves like a near ideal solution.
2
AIPMT 2006
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
A solution containing 10 g per dm3 of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol$$-$$1) is isotonic with a 5% solution of a nonvolatile solute is
A
200 g mol$$-$$1
B
250 g mol$$-$$1
C
300 g mol$$-$$1
D
350 g mol$$-$$1
3
AIPMT 2006
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most favoured in
A
CH3CHO
B
C
(CH3)2C $$=$$ O
D
CH3CH2CHO
4
AIPMT 2006
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
For the reaction, 2A + B $$ \to $$ 3C + D, which of the following does not express the reaction rate?
A
$$ - {{d\left[ A \right]} \over {2dt}}$$
B
$$ - {{d\left[ C \right]} \over {3dt}}$$
C
$$ - {{d\left[ B \right]} \over {dt}}$$
D
$$ {{d\left[ D \right]} \over {dt}}$$
Paper Analysis
Total Questions
Biology 83
Chemistry 45
Physics 47
More Papers of NEET
NEET 2026 NEET 2025 NEET 2024 (Re-Examination) NEET 2024 NEET 2023 Manipur NEET 2023 NEET 2022 Phase 2 NEET 2022 Phase 1 NEET 2021 NEET 2020 Phase 1 NEET 2019 NEET 2018 NEET 2017 NEET 2016 Phase 2 NEET 2016 Phase 1 AIPMT 2015 AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper AIPMT 2014 NEET 2013 (Karnataka) NEET 2013 AIPMT 2012 Mains AIPMT 2012 Prelims AIPMT 2011 Mains AIPMT 2011 Prelims AIPMT 2010 Mains AIPMT 2010 Prelims AIPMT 2009 AIPMT 2008 AIPMT 2007 AIPMT 2006 AIPMT 2005 AIPMT 2004 AIPMT 2003 AIPMT 2002 AIPMT 2001 AIPMT 2000
NEET Papers
All year-wise previous year question papers
2014
2009
2008
2007
2006
2005
2004
2003
2002
2001
2000