Biology
1. Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the activity of 2. Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a piece of bread?
A. 3. Peat moss is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because 4. Conifers differ from grasses in the 5. In a moss, the sporophyte 6. Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach, and crab are 7. Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the characteristic of 8. In which one of the following sets of animals do all the four give birth to young ones? 9. Which one of the following is not a living fossil? 10. Annual migration does not occur in the case of 11. Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its three examples? 12. Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of 13. What is common about Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis and Giardia? 14. Pentamerous actinomorphic flowers, bicarpellary ovary with oblique septa, and fruit capsule or berry, are characteristic 15. In which of the following fruits, the edible part is the aril ? 16. Pineapple (ananas) fruit develops from 17. Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of a young cob of maize are 18. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called 19. The translocation of organic solutes in sieve tube members is supported by 20. Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum growth and productivity in 21. During photorespiration, the oxygen consuming reaction(s) occur in 22. In photosystem I, the first electron acceptor is 23. How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose, if the complete oxidation of one mole 24. Farmers in a particular region were concerned that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause decrease i 25. An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is 26. How does pruning help in making the hedge dense? 27. Treatment of seeds at low temperature under moist conditions to break its dormancy is called 28. Examination of blood of a person suspected of having anaemia shows large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes without haemo 29. The majority of carbon dioxide produced by our body cells is transported to the lungs as 30. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? 31. People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at altitud 32. Which one of the following has an open circulatory system? 33. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by 34. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is 35. Bowman's glands are found in 36. Which one of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter? 37. Which hormone causes dilation of blood vessels, increased oxygen consumption and glucogenesis? 38. Which of the following is an accumulation and release center of neurohormones? 39. A steroid hormone which regulates glucose metabolism is 40. Which one of the following statements is correct? 41. Which one of the following is not a secondary messenger in hormone action? 42. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by 43. In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo is represented by 44. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is 45. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary
hormone known as- 46. Withdrawal of which of the following hormones
is the immediate cause of menstruation ? 47. The formula for exponential population growth is- 48. Test cross involves- 49. Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington's chorea
are- 50. If a colour blind woman marries a normal visioned
man, their sons will be 51. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by
the- 52. In Mendel's experiments with garden pea, round
seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled
seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon ( 53. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from
the African population because- 54. How many different kinds of gametes will be
produced by a plant having the genotype
AABbCC ? 55. Which one of the following is an example of
polygenic inheritance ? 56. Phenotype of an organism is the result of- 57. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was
postulated by - 58. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is
approximately - 59. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between
tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein
synthesis ? 60. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means
that- 61. Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is
decided by the sequence of - 62. Which one of the following amino-acids was not
found to be synthesized in Miller's experiment ? 63. An important evidence in favour of organic
evolution is the occurrence of- 64. Praying mantis is a good example of- 65. Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era
characterized by- 66. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that
causes botulism is- 67. The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a- 68. A person showing unpredictable moods,
outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour
and conflicts with others is suffering 69. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying 70. Antibodies in our body are complex- 71. In Maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by- 72. Crop plants grown in monoculture are- 73. Triticale, the first man-made cereal crop, has
been obtained by crossing wheat with 74. In order to obtain virus-free plants through tissue
culture the best method is- 75. Restriction endonuclease - 76. Two microbes found to be very useful in
genetic engineering are- 77. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop.
When released for cultivation, it will help in 78. Niche overlap indicates- 79. Which one of the following is not used for
construction of ecological pyramids ? 80. Which of the following pairs of an animal and a
plant represents endangered organisms in India ? 81. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot
of biodiversity in India ? 82. Which one of the following is not included
under in-situ conservation ? 83. Which one of the following is the correctly
matched pair of an endangered animal and a
National Park ? 84. Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution
Control Board for the discharge of industrial and
municipal waste waters in 85. Montreal Protocol which calls for appropriate
action to protect the ozone layer from human
activities was passed in the 86. Photochemical smog pollution does not contain- 87. A common structural feature of vessel elements
and sieve tube elements is- 88. Areolar connective tissue joins- 89. Mast cells secrete- 90. Earthworms are - 91. Which of the following statements regarding
mitochondrial membrane is not correct ? 92. Which of the following statements regarding
cilia is not correct ? 93. A major breakthrough in the studies of cells
came with the development of electron
microscope. This is because
Chemistry
1. The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by 2. Given : The mass of electron is 9.11 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$31 kg, Planck constant is 6.626 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$34 J s, the 3. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it ? 4. Which of the following is not a correct statement? 5. Which of the following is not isostructural with SiCl4 ? 6. Which of the following species has a linear shape? 7. Identify the correct statement for change of Gibb's energy for a system ($$\Delta $$Gsystem) at constant temperature and 8. The enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction:
Br2(l) + Cl2(g) $$ \to $$ 2BrCl(g)
are 30 kJ mol$$-$$1 and 105 J K$ 9. The enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is is $$-$$ 119.5 kJ mol$$-$$1. If resonance energy of benzene is $$-$$ 150 10. Assume each reaction is carried out in an open container. For which reaction will $$\Delta $$H = $$\Delta $$E ? 11. For the reaction :
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ CO2(g) + 2H2O(l),
$$\Delta $$Hr = $$-$$ 170.8 kJ mol$$-$$1. 12. Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer? 13. The hydrogen ion concentration of a 10$$-$$8 M, HCl aqueous solution at 298 K (Kw = 10$$-$$14) is 14. The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is 15. The IUPAC name of
is 16. Which of the following is not chiral? 17. The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is 18. Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard reagent yields 19. The major organic product in the reaction is
CH3 $$-$$ O $$-$$ CH(CH3)2 + HI $$ \to $$ products 20. The correct order of the mobility of the alkali metal ions in aqueous solution is 21. A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis forms a racemic mixture of $$\a 22. Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most favoured in 23. Self condensation of two moles of ethyl acetate in presence of sodium ethoxide yields 24. In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a compound D.
The structure of D would be 25. Which of the following is more basic than aniline? 26. The human body does not produce 27. Which one of the following is a peptide hormone? 28. During the process of digestion, the proteins present in food materials are hydrolysed to amino acids. The two enzymes i 29. The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to 30. CsBr crystallises in a body centered cubic lattice. The unit cell length is 436.6 pm. Given that the atomic mass of Cs = 31. During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable membrane is 32. A solution of acetone in ethanol 33. 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250 g mol$$-$$1) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing poin 34. A solution containing 10 g per dm3 of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol$$-$$1) is isotonic with a 5% solution of a nonvola 35.
is a 36. EoFe2+/Fe = $$-$$ 0.441 V and EoFe3+/Fe2+ = 0.771 V, the standard EMF of the reaction Fe + 2Fe3+ $$ \to $$ 3Fe2+ will be 37. A hypothetical electrochemical cell is shown below.
$$A\left| {{A^ + }\left( {xM} \right)} \right|\left| {{B^ + }\left( 38. Consider the reaction : N2(g) + 3H2(g) $$ \to $$ 2NH3(g)
The equality relationship between $${{d\left[ {N{H_3 39. For the reaction, 2A + B $$ \to $$ 3C + D, which of the following does not express the reaction rate? 40. A plot of log(x/m) versus log p for the adsorption of a gas on a solid gives a straight line with slope equal to 41. Which of the following is the most basic oxide? 42. The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is 43. In which of the following molecules are all the bonds are not equal? 44. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it? 45. The electronegativity difference berween N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole moment of NH3 (1.5D 46. In which of the following pairs are both the ions coloured in aqueous solution?
(At. no. : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, 47. More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. The main reason for this is 48. Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN to give 49. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (At. no. of Cr = 24) has a magnetic momen of 3.83 B.M. The correct distribution of 3d electrons in the ch 50. [Co(NH3)4(NO2)2]Cl exhibits
Physics
1. The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by v = at + $${b \over {t + c}}$$, where a, b and c are constants. The d 2. Two bodies A (of mass 1 kg) and B (of mass 3 kg) are dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m, respectively. The ratio of t 3. A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track of radius 100 m, taking 62.8 seconds for every circular lap. The aver 4. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of the particle from O is 5. For angles of projection of a projectile at angle (45o $$-$$ $$\theta $$) and (45o + $$\theta $$), the horizontal range 6. The vectors $$\overrightarrow A $$ and $$\overrightarrow B $$ are such that $$\left| {\overrightarrow A + \overrightar 7. A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s strikes a hand wall at an angle of 30o with the wall. It is reflected with t 8. 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up an inclined plane of height 10 m. Work done against friction is (Take g 9. A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force which causes a displacement s in metres in it, given by the relation s = $ 10. The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm the potential ener 11. A uniform rod AB of length $$l$$ and mass m is free to rotate about point A. The rod is released from rest in the horizo 12. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass M about an axis touching the disc at its diameter 13. A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tube is 14. The earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. A platform is arranged at a height R from the surface of the earth. The 15. A black body at 1227oC emits radiations with maximum intensity at a wavelength of 5000 $$\mathop A\limits^ \circ $$. If 16. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas is (7/2) R. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressur 17. A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. By how much should the temperature of source be increas 18. A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross-section A floats in a liquid of density $$\rho $$. If it is given a smal 19. Two vibrating tuning forks produce waves given by y1 = 4 sin 500$$\pi $$t and y2 = 2 sin506 $$\pi $$t. Number of beats p 20. Two sound waves with wavelengths 5.0 m and 5.5. m respectively, each propagate in a gas with velocity 330 m/s. We expect 21. The time of reverberation of a room A is one second. What will be the time (in seconds of reverberation of a room, havin 22. A transverse wave propagating along x-axis is represented by y(x, t) = 8.0 sin (0.5 $$\pi $$x $$-$$ 4$$\pi $$t $$-$$ $$\ 23. Which one of the following statements is true ? 24. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V volts. After disconnecting the charging battery 25. A square surface of side L metres is in the plane of the paper. A uniform electric field $$\overrightarrow E $$ (volt/m) 26. An electric dipole of moment $$\overrightarrow p $$ is lying along a uniform electric field $$\overrightarrow E $$. The 27. In the circuit shown, if a conducting wire is connected between points A and B, the current in this wire will
28. Kirchoff's first and second laws of electrical circuits are consequences of 29. Two cells, having the same e.m.f. are connected in series through an external resistance R. Cells have internal resistan 30. Power dissipated across the 8 $$\Omega $$ resistor in the circuit shown here is 2 watt. The power dissipated in watt uni 31. When a charged particle moving with velocity $$\overrightarrow v $$ is subjected to a magnetic field of induction $$\ove 32. Two circular coils 1 and 2 are made from the same wire but the radius of the 1st coil is twice that of the 2nd coil. Wha 33. Curie temperature above which 34. Two coils of self inductance 2 mH and 8 mH are placed so close together that the effective flux in one coil is completel 35. A coil of inductive reactance 31 $$\Omega $$ has a resistance of 8 $$\Omega $$. It is placed in series with a condenser 36. The core of a transformer is laminated because 37. A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit with an inductor L (of negligible resistance) and a capacitor C in seri 38. A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and refractive index 1 39. A convex lens and a concave lens, each having same focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to form a combination of le 40. When photons of energy h$$\upsilon $$ fall on an aluminimum plate (of work function E0), photoelectrons of maximum kinet 41. A photocell employs photoelectric effect to convert 42. The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in kg m/s will be 43. In a discharge tube ionization of enclosed gas is produced due to collisions between 44. Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by monochromatic radiat 45. In a radioactive material the activity at time t1 is R1 and at a later time t2, it is R2. If the decay constant of the m 46. The binding energy of deuteron is 2.2 MeV and that of $${}_2^4$$He is 28 MeV. If two deuterons are fused to form one $${ 47. The radius of germanium (Ge) nuclide is measured to be twice the radius of $${}_4^9$$Be. The number of nucleons in Ge ar 48. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C.
The voltage waveforms of A, 49. A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at constant collector voltage VC = 1.5 V such that a change in 50. Which one of the following represents forward bias diode ?
1
AIPMT 2006
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Assume each reaction is carried out in an open container. For which reaction will $$\Delta $$H = $$\Delta $$E ?
A
2CO(g) + O2(g) $$ \to $$ 2CO2(g)
B
H2(g) + Br2(g) $$ \to $$ 2HBr(g)
C
C(s) + 2H2O(g) $$ \to $$ 2H2(g) + CO2(g)
D
PCl5(g) $$ \to $$ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
2
AIPMT 2006
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
For the reaction :
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ CO2(g) + 2H2O(l),
$$\Delta $$Hr = $$-$$ 170.8 kJ mol$$-$$1.
Which of the following statements is not true?
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ CO2(g) + 2H2O(l),
$$\Delta $$Hr = $$-$$ 170.8 kJ mol$$-$$1.
Which of the following statements is not true?
A
The reaction is exothermic.
B
At equilibrium, the concentrations of CO2(g) and H2O(l) are not equal.
C
The equilibrium constant for the reaction is given by Kp = $${{\left[ {C{O_2}} \right]} \over {\left[ {C{H_4}} \right]\left[ {{O_2}} \right]}}$$
D
Addition of CH4(g) or O2(g) at equilibrium will cause a shift to the right.
3
AIPMT 2006
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer?
A
HCl and KCl
B
HNO2 and NaNO2
C
NaOH and NaCl
D
HNO3 and NH4NO3
4
AIPMT 2006
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The hydrogen ion concentration of a 10$$-$$8 M, HCl aqueous solution at 298 K (Kw = 10$$-$$14) is
A
1.0 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$8 M
B
1.0 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$6 M
C
1.0525 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$7 M
D
9.525 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$8 M
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
93
Chemistry
50
Physics
50
More papers of NEET
NEET 2023 Manipur
NEET 2023
NEET 2022 Phase 2
NEET 2022 Phase 1
NEET 2021
NEET 2020 Phase 1
NEET 2019
NEET 2018
NEET 2017
NEET 2016 Phase 2
NEET 2016 Phase 1
AIPMT 2015
AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper
AIPMT 2014
NEET 2013 (Karnataka)
NEET 2013
AIPMT 2012 Mains
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
AIPMT 2011 Mains
AIPMT 2011 Prelims
AIPMT 2010 Mains
AIPMT 2010 Prelims
AIPMT 2009
AIPMT 2008
AIPMT 2007
AIPMT 2006
AIPMT 2005
AIPMT 2004
AIPMT 2003
AIPMT 2002
AIPMT 2001
AIPMT 2000
NEET
Papers
2020
2014
2009
2008
2007
2006
2005
2004
2003
2002
2001
2000