Biology
1. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by 2. In photosystem I, the first electron acceptor is 3. How many ATP molecules could maximally be generated from one molecule of glucose, if the complete oxidation of one mole 4. Farmers in a particular region were concerned that pre-mature yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop might cause decrease i 5. Treatment of seeds at low temperature under moist conditions to break its dormancy is called 6. How does pruning help in making the hedge dense? 7. An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is 8. People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at altitud 9. The majority of carbon dioxide produced by our body cells is transported to the lungs as 10. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? 11. Which one of the following has an open circulatory system? 12. Bowman's glands are found in 13. During photorespiration, the oxygen consuming reaction(s) occur in 14. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is 15. Which of the following is an accumulation and release center of neurohormones? 16. Which hormone causes dilation of blood vessels, increased oxygen consumption and glucogenesis? 17. A steroid hormone which regulates glucose metabolism is 18. Which one of the following is not a secondary messenger in hormone action? 19. Which one of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter? 20. Which one of the following statements is correct? 21. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is 22. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by 23. In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo is represented by 24. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary
hormone known as- 25. Conifers differ from grasses in the 26. Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the activity of 27. Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a piece of bread?
A. 28. Peat moss is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because 29. Which one of the following is not a living fossil? 30. Annual migration does not occur in the case of 31. Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its three examples? 32. In which one of the following sets of animals do all the four give birth to young ones? 33. Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of 34. The formula for exponential population growth is- 35. Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach, and crab are 36. In a moss, the sporophyte 37. Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the characteristic of 38. In which of the following fruits, the edible part is the aril ? 39. What is common about Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis and Giardia? 40. Pentamerous actinomorphic flowers, bicarpellary ovary with oblique septa, and fruit capsule or berry, are characteristic 41. An organic substance bound to an enzyme and essential for its activity is called 42. Pineapple (ananas) fruit develops from 43. Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of a young cob of maize are 44. Which one of the following is the correctly
matched pair of an endangered animal and a
National Park ? 45. A person showing unpredictable moods,
outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour
and conflicts with others is suffering 46. Two microbes found to be very useful in
genetic engineering are- 47. Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop.
When released for cultivation, it will help in 48. Restriction endonuclease - 49. Which one of the following is not included
under in-situ conservation ? 50. Niche overlap indicates- 51. Which one of the following is not used for
construction of ecological pyramids ? 52. Which of the following pairs of an animal and a
plant represents endangered organisms in India ? 53. The causative agent of mad-cow disease is a- 54. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot
of biodiversity in India ? 55. A common structural feature of vessel elements
and sieve tube elements is- 56. Which of the following statements regarding
cilia is not correct ? 57. A major breakthrough in the studies of cells
came with the development of electron
microscope. This is because 58. Areolar connective tissue joins- 59. Earthworms are - 60. Mast cells secrete- 61. Which of the following statements regarding
mitochondrial membrane is not correct ? 62. If a colour blind woman marries a normal visioned
man, their sons will be 63. Withdrawal of which of the following hormones
is the immediate cause of menstruation ? 64. Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington's chorea
are- 65. Phenotype of an organism is the result of- 66. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from
the African population because- 67. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is
approximately - 68. Test cross involves- 69. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between
tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein
synthesis ? 70. In Mendel's experiments with garden pea, round
seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled
seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon ( 71. Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is
decided by the sequence of - 72. How many different kinds of gametes will be
produced by a plant having the genotype
AABbCC ? 73. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was
postulated by - 74. Which one of the following is an example of
polygenic inheritance ? 75. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means
that- 76. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by
the- 77. Which one of the following amino-acids was not
found to be synthesized in Miller's experiment ? 78. Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era
characterized by- 79. An important evidence in favour of organic
evolution is the occurrence of- 80. Praying mantis is a good example of- 81. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that
causes botulism is- 82. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying 83. Antibodies in our body are complex-
Chemistry
1. In which of the following pairs are both the ions coloured in aqueous solution?
(At. no. : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, 2. [Co(NH3)4(NO2)2]Cl exhibits 3. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (At. no. of Cr = 24) has a magnetic momen of 3.83 B.M. The correct distribution of 3d electrons in the ch 4. Copper sulphate dissolves in excess of KCN to give 5. For the reaction, 2A + B $$ \to $$ 3C + D, which of the following does not express the reaction rate? 6. Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most favoured in 7. The human body does not produce 8. Which one of the following is a peptide hormone? 9. Which of the following is more basic than aniline? 10. During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable membrane is 11. During the process of digestion, the proteins present in food materials are hydrolysed to amino acids. The two enzymes i 12. A solution of acetone in ethanol 13. Consider the reaction : N2(g) + 3H2(g) $$ \to $$ 2NH3(g)
The equality relationship between $${{d\left[ {N{H_3 14. In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a compound D.
The structure of D would be 15. 1.00 g of a non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250 g mol$$-$$1) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing poin 16. A solution containing 10 g per dm3 of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol$$-$$1) is isotonic with a 5% solution of a nonvola 17. A hypothetical electrochemical cell is shown below.
$$A\left| {{A^ + }\left( {xM} \right)} \right|\left| {{B^ + }\left( 18. EoFe2+/Fe = $$-$$ 0.441 V and EoFe3+/Fe2+ = 0.771 V, the standard EMF of the reaction Fe + 2Fe3+ $$ \to $$ 3Fe2+ will be 19. In which of the following molecules are all the bonds are not equal? 20. Which of the following is the most basic oxide? 21. The electronegativity difference berween N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole moment of NH3 (1.5D 22. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it? 23. The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is 24. More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. The main reason for this is 25. Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer? 26. Given : The mass of electron is 9.11 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$31 kg, Planck constant is 6.626 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$34 J s, the 27. The orientation of an atomic orbital is governed by 28. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it ? 29. Which of the following is not isostructural with SiCl4 ? 30. Which of the following species has a linear shape? 31. Which of the following is not a correct statement? 32. Assume each reaction is carried out in an open container. For which reaction will $$\Delta $$H = $$\Delta $$E ? 33. Identify the correct statement for change of Gibb's energy for a system ($$\Delta $$Gsystem) at constant temperature and 34. The enthalpy and entropy change for the reaction:
Br2(l) + Cl2(g) $$ \to $$ 2BrCl(g)
are 30 kJ mol$$-$$1 and 105 J K$ 35. The enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is is $$-$$ 119.5 kJ mol$$-$$1. If resonance energy of benzene is $$-$$ 150 36. The hydrogen ion concentration of a 10$$-$$8 M, HCl aqueous solution at 298 K (Kw = 10$$-$$14) is 37. For the reaction :
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ CO2(g) + 2H2O(l),
$$\Delta $$Hr = $$-$$ 170.8 kJ mol$$-$$1. 38. The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is 39. The IUPAC name of
is 40. Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard reagent yields 41. Which of the following is not chiral? 42. The major organic product in the reaction is
CH3 $$-$$ O $$-$$ CH(CH3)2 + HI $$ \to $$ products 43. The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanols is 44. A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis forms a racemic mixture of $$\a 45. Self condensation of two moles of ethyl acetate in presence of sodium ethoxide yields
Physics
1. A coil of inductive reactance 31 $$\Omega $$ has a resistance of 8 $$\Omega $$. It is placed in series with a condenser 2. A square surface of side L metres is in the plane of the paper. A uniform electric field $$\overrightarrow E $$ (volt/m) 3. Two cells, having the same e.m.f. are connected in series through an external resistance R. Cells have internal resistan 4. Curie temperature above which 5. When a charged particle moving with velocity $$\overrightarrow v $$ is subjected to a magnetic field of induction $$\ove 6. Power dissipated across the 8 $$\Omega $$ resistor in the circuit shown here is 2 watt. The power dissipated in watt uni 7. Two circular coils 1 and 2 are made from the same wire but the radius of the 1st coil is twice that of the 2nd coil. Wha 8. Kirchoff's first and second laws of electrical circuits are consequences of 9. In the circuit shown, if a conducting wire is connected between points A and B, the current in this wire will
10. Two coils of self inductance 2 mH and 8 mH are placed so close together that the effective flux in one coil is completel 11. The core of a transformer is laminated because 12. A transistor-oscillator using a resonant circuit with an inductor L (of negligible resistance) and a capacitor C in seri 13. An electric dipole of moment $$\overrightarrow p $$ is lying along a uniform electric field $$\overrightarrow E $$. The 14. A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and refractive index 1 15. In a discharge tube ionization of enclosed gas is produced due to collisions between 16. A convex lens and a concave lens, each having same focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to form a combination of le 17. When photons of energy h$$\upsilon $$ fall on an aluminimum plate (of work function E0), photoelectrons of maximum kinet 18. The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in kg m/s will be 19. A photocell employs photoelectric effect to convert 20. Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by monochromatic radiat 21. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C.
The voltage waveforms of A, 22. The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm the potential ener 23. Two bodies A (of mass 1 kg) and B (of mass 3 kg) are dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m, respectively. The ratio of t 24. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of the particle from O is 25. The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by v = at + $${b \over {t + c}}$$, where a, b and c are constants. The d 26. The vectors $$\overrightarrow A $$ and $$\overrightarrow B $$ are such that $$\left| {\overrightarrow A + \overrightar 27. A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s strikes a hand wall at an angle of 30o with the wall. It is reflected with t 28. For angles of projection of a projectile at angle (45o $$-$$ $$\theta $$) and (45o + $$\theta $$), the horizontal range 29. A uniform rod AB of length $$l$$ and mass m is free to rotate about point A. The rod is released from rest in the horizo 30. A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force which causes a displacement s in metres in it, given by the relation s = $ 31. 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up an inclined plane of height 10 m. Work done against friction is (Take g 32. A tube of length L is filled completely with an incompressible liquid of mass M and closed at both the ends. The tube is 33. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass M about an axis touching the disc at its diameter 34. The binding energy of deuteron is 2.2 MeV and that of $${}_2^4$$He is 28 MeV. If two deuterons are fused to form one $${ 35. The earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. A platform is arranged at a height R from the surface of the earth. The 36. A black body at 1227oC emits radiations with maximum intensity at a wavelength of 5000 $$\mathop A\limits^ \circ $$. If 37. Which one of the following statements is true ? 38. A rectangular block of mass m and area of cross-section A floats in a liquid of density $$\rho $$. If it is given a smal 39. A transverse wave propagating along x-axis is represented by y(x, t) = 8.0 sin (0.5 $$\pi $$x $$-$$ 4$$\pi $$t $$-$$ $$\ 40. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas is (7/2) R. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressur 41. Two sound waves with wavelengths 5.0 m and 5.5. m respectively, each propagate in a gas with velocity 330 m/s. We expect 42. The time of reverberation of a room A is one second. What will be the time (in seconds of reverberation of a room, havin 43. A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300 K has an efficiency of 40%. By how much should the temperature of source be increas 44. Two vibrating tuning forks produce waves given by y1 = 4 sin 500$$\pi $$t and y2 = 2 sin506 $$\pi $$t. Number of beats p 45. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V volts. After disconnecting the charging battery 46. Which one of the following represents forward bias diode ? 47. A car runs at a constant speed on a circular track of radius 100 m, taking 62.8 seconds for every circular lap. The aver
1
AIPMT 2006
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The potential energy of a long spring when stretched by 2 cm is U. If the spring is stretched by 8 cm the potential energy stored in it is
A
U/4
B
4U
C
8U
D
16U
2
AIPMT 2006
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Two bodies A (of mass 1 kg) and B (of mass 3 kg) are dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m, respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them to reach the ground is
A
4/5
B
5/4
C
12/5
D
5/12
3
AIPMT 2006
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of the particle from O is given by x = 40 + 12t $$-$$ t3. How long would the particle travel before coming to rest ?
A
16 m
B
24 m
C
40 m
D
56 m
4
AIPMT 2006
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by v = at + $${b \over {t + c}}$$, where a, b and c are constants. The dimensions of a, b and c are
A
[L], [LT] and [LT$$-$$2]
B
[LT$$-$$2], [L] and [T]
C
[L2], [T] and [LT$$-$$2]
D
[LT$$-$$2], and [LT] and [L]
Paper Analysis
Total Questions
Biology 83
Chemistry 45
Physics 47
More Papers of NEET
RE-NEET 2026 NEET 2026 NEET 2025 NEET 2024 (Re-Examination) NEET 2024 NEET 2023 Manipur NEET 2023 NEET 2022 Phase 2 NEET 2022 Phase 1 NEET 2021 NEET 2020 Phase 1 NEET 2019 NEET 2018 NEET 2017 NEET 2016 Phase 2 NEET 2016 Phase 1 AIPMT 2015 AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper AIPMT 2014 NEET 2013 (Karnataka) NEET 2013 AIPMT 2012 Mains AIPMT 2012 Prelims AIPMT 2011 Mains AIPMT 2011 Prelims AIPMT 2010 Mains AIPMT 2010 Prelims AIPMT 2009 AIPMT 2008 AIPMT 2007 AIPMT 2006 AIPMT 2005 AIPMT 2004 AIPMT 2003 AIPMT 2002 AIPMT 2001 AIPMT 2000
NEET Papers
All year-wise previous year question papers
2014
2009
2008
2007
2006
2005
2004
2003
2002
2001
2000