NEET 2018
Paper was held on Sun, May 6, 2018 10:00 AM
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Biology

1
Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below.

Column I Column II
A. Tidal volume (i) 2500 – 3000 mL
B. Inspiratory reserve volume (ii) 1100 – 1200 mL
C. Expiratory reserve volume (iii) 500 – 550 mL
D. Residual volume (iv) 1000 – 1100 mL
2
The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is
3
Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis?
4
Which of these statements is incorrect?
5
Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below.
Column I Column II
A. Tricuspid valve (i) Between left atrium and left ventricle
B. Bicuspid valve (ii) Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery
C. Semilunar valve (iii) Between right atrium and right ventricle
6
Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below.

Column I Column II
A. Glycosuria (i) Accumulation of uric
acid in joints
B. Gout (ii) Mass of crystallised
salts within the kidney
C. Renal calculi (iii) Inflammation in
glomeruli
D. Glomerular nephritis (iv) Presence of glucose in urine
7
Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?
8
Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below.
Column I
(Function)
Column II
(Part of excretory system)
A. Ultrafiltration (i) Henle’s loop
B. Concentration of urine (ii) Ureter
C. Transport of urine (iii) Urinary bladder
D. Storage of urine (iv) Malpighian corpuscle
(v) Proximal convoluted tubule
9
The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are
10
Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below.
Column I Column II
A. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
B. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
C. Albumin (iii) Defence mechanism
11
What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?
12
Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?
13
Nissl’s bodies are mainly composed of
14
Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it
15
Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its functions?
16
The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
17
Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?
18
Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?
19
Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?
20
Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
21
Select the wrong statement.
22
Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by
23
After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in
24
Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
25
Which one is wrongly matched?
26
Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?
27
Which of the following statements is correct?
28
Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?
29
Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterised by crop and gizzard in its digestive system.
30
Sweet potato is a modified
31
Stomata in grass leaf are
32
Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by
33
Casparian strips occur in
34
Plants having little or no secondary growth are
35
The Golgi complex participates in
36
Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
37
Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?
38
Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
39
Select the incorrect match.
40
In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is
41
According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
42
Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug “smack”?
43
Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of
44
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
45
In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
46
Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes?
47
Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics?
48
The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is
49
Pneumatophores occur in
50
Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called
51
Niche is
52
The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
53
A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to
54
Natality refers to
55
Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other?
56
All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ conservation’ except
57
Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
58
In a growing population of a country,
59
What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data?
Secondary consumer : 120 g
Primary consumer : 60 g
Primary producer : 10 g
60
Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
61
Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
62
Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils?
63
The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from
64
The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is
65
Winged pollen grains are present in
66
Double fertilization is
67
Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below.
Column - I Column - II
A. Proliferative phase (i) Breakdown of
endometrial lining
B. Secretory Phase (ii) Follicular Phase
C. Menstruation (iii) Luteal Phase
68
The contraceptive ‘Saheli’
69
Which of the following characteristics represent 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans?
a. Dominance
b. Co-dominance
c. Multiple allele
d. Incomplete dominance
e. Polygenic inheritance
70
Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below.
Column I Column II
A. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals.
B. Key (ii) A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification.
C. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets are kept.
D. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa.
71
Select the correct match :
72
A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by
73
The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA was first shown in a
74
Select the correct statement :
75
Select the correct match :
76
Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as
77
All of the following are part of an operon except
78
AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
79
Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option.

Chemistry

1
The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order
2
Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms. (A) is
3
The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that
4
When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction
5
Which of the following statements is not true for halogens?
6
Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well?
7
Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II and assign the correct code :
Column - I Column - II
A. Co3+ (i) $$\sqrt 8 $$ B.M.
B. Cr3+ (ii) $$\sqrt {35} $$ B.M.
C. Fe3+ (iii) $$\sqrt 3 $$ B.M.
D. Ni2+ (iv) $$\sqrt {24} $$ B.M.
(v) $$\sqrt {15} $$ B.M.
8
The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl2(en)2] is
9
The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4] are
10
Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
11
In the reaction, NEET 2018 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 16 English
the electrophile involved is
12
Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell. A and Y are respectively
13
The compound C7H8 undergoes the following reactions : NEET 2018 Chemistry - Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Question 14 English
The product ‘C’ is
14
Identify the major products P, Q and R in the following sequence of reactions : NEET 2018 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 14 English
15
Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
16
Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because
17
The difference between amylose and amylopectin is
18
Which of the following compounds can form a zwitter ion?
19
Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations :

A. 60 mL $${M \over {10}}$$ HCl + 40 mL $${M \over {10}}$$ NaOH

B. 55 mL $${M \over {10}}$$ HCl + 45 mL $${M \over {10}}$$ NaOH

C. 75 mL $${M \over {5}}$$ HCl + 25 mL $${M \over {5}}$$ NaOH

D. 100 mL $${M \over {10}}$$ HCl + 100 mL $${M \over {10}}$$ NaOH

pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
20
In which case is number of molecules of water maximum?
21
Which one is a wrong statement?
22
The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is
23
Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature?
24
Consider the following species : CN+ , CN , NO and CN. Which one of these will have the highest bond order?
25
The bond dissociation energies of X2 , Y2 and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. $$\Delta $$H for the formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond dissociation energy of X2 will be
26
In the structure of ClF3 , the number of lone pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is
27
The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 g L–1 at 298 K. The value of its solubility product (Ksp) will be (Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1)
28
Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the reaction
A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ X2(g) , $$\Delta $$rH = –X kJ ?
29
For the redox reaction,
MnO4 + C2O4 2– + H+ $$ \to $$ Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O
The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are
30
Consider the change in oxidation state of bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the given diagram : NEET 2018 Chemistry - Electrochemistry Question 19 English
Then the species undergoing disproportionation is :
31
The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is
32
Which of the following is correct with respect to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
33
Which one of the following elements is unable to form MF63– ion?
34
Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridisation sp2 , sp2 , sp, sp from left to right atoms?
35
Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable?
36
A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H2SO4 . The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be

Physics

1
A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is
2
An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image will be
3
A carbon resistor of (47 $$ \pm $$ 4.7) k$$\Omega $$ is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be
4
A battery consists of a variable number n of identical cells (having internal resistance r each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n?
5
A set of n equal resistors, of value R each, are connected in series to a battery of emf E and internal resistance R. The current drawn is I. Now, the n resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 10I. The value of n is
6
A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric field $$\overrightarrow E $$ . Due to the force q$$\overrightarrow E $$ , its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m s–1 in one second duration. At that instant the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively
7
A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is
8
A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required to do this comes from
9
The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance
10
Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is
11
An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 $$\mu $$F and a resistor 50 $$\Omega $$ are connected in series across a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is
12
The refractive index of the material of a prism is $$\sqrt 2 $$ and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is
13
An EM wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity $$\overrightarrow v = v\widehat i$$. The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the em wave will be along
14
At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from the Earth’s atmosphere?
(Given : Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg, Boltzmann’s constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 J K–1)
15
In Young’s double slit experiment the separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength $$\lambda $$ of the light used is 5896 $$\mathop A\limits^0 $$ and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0.20o. To increase the fringe angular width to 0.21o (with same $$\lambda $$ and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to
16
Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index $$\mu $$. At a particular angle of incidence i, it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation?
17
An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution, when it has an objective lens of
18
An electron of mass m with an initial velocity $$\overrightarrow v = {v_0}\widehat i$$ (v0 > 0) enters an electric field $$\overrightarrow E = - {\overrightarrow E _0}\widehat i$$ (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If $$\lambda $$0 is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de- Broglie wavelength at time t is
19
When the light of frequency 2$${\upsilon _0}$$ (where $${\upsilon _0}$$ is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v1 . When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5$${\upsilon _0}$$ , the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v2 . The ratio of v1 to v2 is
20
In the combination of the following gates the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as NEET 2018 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 29 English
21
The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is
22
In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating
23
The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is
24
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
25
A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be
26
A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination q as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’ towards the right. The relation between a and q for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is NEET 2018 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 11 English
27
A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to NEET 2018 Physics - Work, Energy and Power Question 11 English
28
A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is
29
A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere?
30
The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, $$\lambda $$0 . If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength $${3 \over 4}{\lambda _0}$$, the power radiated by it becomes nP. The value of n is
31
Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed $$\omega $$ about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation
32
The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then NEET 2018 Physics - Gravitation Question 17 English
33
Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is increased by $$\Delta $$l on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount?
34
The moment of the force, $$\overrightarrow F = 4\widehat i + 5\widehat j - 6\widehat k$$ at
(2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given by
35
A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal pressure (1.013 × 105 N m–2) requires 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the sample, is
36
The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is NEET 2018 Physics - Heat and Thermodynamics Question 24 English
37
A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is proportional to
38
If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, which of the following is not correct?
39
The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is
40
A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27°C two successive resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27°C is
41
A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m s–2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is
42
The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is
43
An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
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