Biology
1. Select the correct statement : 2. All of the following are part of an operon except 3. In a growing population of a country, 4. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
sequence of the transcribed m 5. In India, the organisation responsible for
assessing the safety of introducing genetically
modified organisms for public 6. A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a
foreign company, though such varieties have
been present in India for a long t 7. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
inherited by 8. The difference between spermiogenesis and
spermiation is 9. The contraceptive ‘Saheli’ 10. The experimental proof for semi-conservative
replication of DNA was first shown in a 11. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
nutritional value by increasing the amount of 12. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs
of many vertebrates is an example of 13. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of
evolution is 14. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
disease? 15. Which of the following is commonly used as a
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
human lymphocytes? 16. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
lymphatic vessels? 17. Which one of the following plants shows a
very close relationship with a species of moth,
where none of the two can comp 18. Which one of the following population
interactions is widely used in medical science
for the production of antibiotics? 19. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ
conservation’ except 20. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
from 21. Pollen grains can be stored for several years
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of 22. Among the following sets of examples for
divergent evolution, select the incorrect option. 23. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 24. The Golgi complex participates in 25. Which of the following options correctly
represents the lung conditions in asthma and
emphysema, respectively? 26. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by 27. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans? 28. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration? 29. Nissl’s bodies are mainly composed of
30. Which of the following statements is correct? 31. Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm? 32. The stage during which separation of the paired
homologous chromosomes begins is
33. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in 34. Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below.
.tg {border-coll 35. Casparian strips occur in 36. Which of the following events does not occur
in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
37. Which of the following is an occupational
respiratory disorder? 38. Which of the following hormones can play a
significant role in osteoporosis?
39. Which of the following structures or regions is
incorrectly paired with its functions? 40. Select the wrong statement. 41. Plants having little or no secondary growth are 42. Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterised by crop and gizzard in its digestive system. 43. Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach? 44. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in 45. Stomata in grass leaf are 46. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by 47. Select the incorrect match.
48. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 49. Which one is wrongly matched? 50. Which of the following is true for nucleolus? 51. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given below.
.tg {border-colla 52. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 53. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 54. Which among the following is not a prokaryote? 55. Which of the following is not a product of light
reaction of photosynthesis? 56. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
contraction because it
57. Which of the following is an amino acid derived
hormone?
58. Sweet potato is a modified 59. The two functional groups characteristic of
sugars are
60. Which of these statements is incorrect? 61. Select the correct match : 62. Select the correct match : 63. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the
drug “smack”? 64. Natality refers to 65. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
simultaneously. Such strings of 66. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain
pregnancy are 67. Which of the following has proved helpful in
preserving pollen as fossils? 68. Winged pollen grains are present in 69. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain
Reaction (PCR) is 70. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched? 71. Double fertilization is 72. What type of ecological pyramid would be
obtained with the following data?
Secondary consumer : 120 g
Primary consumer : 73. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 74. Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis? 75. Pneumatophores occur in 76. Use of bioresources by multinational
companies and organisations without
authorisation from the concerned country and
it 77. Niche is 78. Which of the following characteristics represent 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans?
a. Dominance
b. Co-dominance
Chemistry
1. The correct order of N-compounds in its
decreasing order of oxidation states is 2. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
transition and paramagnetism as well? 3. The bond dissociation energies of X2
, Y2
and
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. $$\Delta $$H for the
formation of XY 4. Which of the following carbocations is
expected to be most stable? 5. The correct difference between first and
second order reactions is that 6. The solubility of BaSO4
in water is
2.42 × 10–3 g L–1 at 298 K. The value of its
solubility product (Ksp) will be (Give 7. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
Wurtz reaction is converted to gas 8. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium
also gives m-nitroaniline because 9. Which of the following compounds can form a
zwitter ion? 10. Which of the following statements is not true
for halogens? 11. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
[CoCl2(en)2] is 12. The compound C7H8
undergoes the following
reactions :
The product ‘C’ is 13. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
nature? 14. Consider the change in oxidation state of
bromine corresponding to different emf values
as shown in the given diagram :
15. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different
concentrations :
A. 60 mL $${ 16. Which of the following is correct with respect
to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl) 17. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given
in Column II and assign the corr 18. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
B, and with PCl5
gives C. B and C react together
to give diethyl ether. A, B 19. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
yields a yellow precipitate with 20. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4
. The evolved
gaseous mixture is passed 21. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
complex [Ni(CO)4] are 22. In which case is number of molecules of water
maximum? 23. Which one is a wrong statement? 24. Which one of the following conditions will
favour maximum formation of the product in
the reaction
A2(g)
+ B2(g) ⇌ X2(g 25. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
comparable molecular mass. It i 26. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5
is 27. Which one of the following elements is unable
to form MF63– ion? 28. In the reaction,
the electrophile involved is 29. For the redox reaction,
MnO4–
+ C2O4
2– + H+ $$ \to $$ Mn2+ + CO2
+ H2O
The correct coefficients of the reactants for
30. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
elements is 31. Consider the following species : CN+
, CN–
, NO
and CN. Which one of these will have the
highest bond order? 32. In the structure of ClF3
, the number of lone
pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is 33. When initial concentration of the reactant is
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
reaction 34. Which of the following molecules represents
the order of hybridisation sp2
, sp2
, sp, sp from
left to right atoms? 35. The difference between amylose and amylopectin
is 36. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
following sequence of reactions :
Physics
1. A student measured the diameter of a small
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
0.001 cm. The main scale readin 2. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal
pressure (1.013 × 105
N m–2) requires 54 cal
of heat energy to convert t 3. The kinetic energies of
a planet in an elliptical
orbit about the Sun, at
positions A, B and C are
KA, KB and KC, respec 4. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
between the freezing point and boiling point
of water, is 5. The volume (V) of a monatomic
gas varies with its temperature
(T), as shown in the graph. The
ratio of work done by the 6. A moving block having mass m, collides with
another stationary block having mass 4m. The
lighter block comes to rest aft 7. A set of n equal resistors, of value R each, are
connected in series to a battery of emf E and
internal resistance R. Th 8. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
and the universal gravitational constant were
ten times larger in magnitud 9. The power radiated by a black body is P and it
radiates maximum energy at wavelength, $$\lambda $$0
. If
the temperature 10. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
sufficiently high building and is moving freely
to and fro like a simple harmonic 11. At what temperature will the rms speed of
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
escaping from the Earth’s atmosphe 12. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
If the object is displaced throu 13. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each
have the same mass M and 14. Two wires are made of the same material and
have the same volume. The first wire has
cross-sectional area A and the seco 15. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in
a glass tube. The length of the air column in
this tube can be adjusted by 16. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
directed electric field E. 17. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless
horizontal plane surface under the influence of
a uniform electric field 18. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth
inclined plane which makes an angle 19. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 $$\mu $$F and
a resistor 50 $$\Omega $$ are connected in series across
a source of em 20. An EM wave is propagating in a medium with
a velocity $$\overrightarrow v = v\widehat i$$. The instantaneous
oscillatin 21. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
$$\overrightarrow v = {v_0}\widehat i$$ (v0 > 0)
enters an electric 22. In Young’s double slit experiment the
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
wavelength $$\lambda $$ of the light u 23. When the light of frequency 2$${\upsilon _0}$$
(where $${\upsilon _0}$$
is
threshold frequency), is incident on a meta 24. An astronomical refracting telescope will have
large angular magnification and high angular
resolution, when it has an o 25. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
atom, is 26. In the combination of the following gates
the output Y can be written in terms of inputs
A and B as
27. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
due to heating 28. The refractive index of the material of a prism
is $$\sqrt 2 $$ and the angle of the prism is 30°. One
of the two refrac 29. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
plane surface of a material of refractive index
$$\mu $$. At a particular an 30. The electrostatic force between the metal plates
of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having
a charge Q and area A, 31. The magnetic potential energy stored in a
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current
in the inductor is 60 mA. This ind 32. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
between the poles of an electromagnet. When
the current in the electromagnet 33. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect? 34. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined
wedge ABC of inclination q as shown in the
figure. The wedge is given a 35. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
organ pipe. If the length of 36. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit v 37. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of
the sphere is increased keeping i 38. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
motion a body possesses translational kinetic
energy (Kt) as well as rot 39. A body initially at rest
and sliding along a
frictionless track from
a height h (as shown
in the figure)
just completes 40. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
due to viscous force. Th 41. The moment of the force, $$\overrightarrow F = 4\widehat i + 5\widehat j - 6\widehat k$$ at
(2, 0, –3), about the point 42. A carbon resistor of (47 $$ \pm $$ 4.7) k$$\Omega $$ is to be marked
with rings of different colours for its identificat 43. A battery consists of a variable number n of
identical cells (having internal resistance r each)
which are connected in
1
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
complex [Ni(CO)4] are
A
square planar geometry and diamagnetic
B
tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
C
square planar geometry and paramagnetic
D
tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic.
2
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
In which case is number of molecules of water
maximum?
A
18 mL of water
B
0.18 g of water
C
0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K
D
10–3 mol of water
3
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which one is a wrong statement?
A
Total orbital angular momentum of electron
in s-orbital is equal to zero.
B
An orbital is designated by three quantum
numbers while an electron in an atom is
designated by four quantum numbers
C
The electronic configuration of N atom is
D
The value of m for dz2 is zero.
4
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which one of the following conditions will
favour maximum formation of the product in
the reaction
A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ X2(g) , $$\Delta $$rH = –X kJ ?
A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ X2(g) , $$\Delta $$rH = –X kJ ?
A
Low temperature and high pressure
B
Low temperature and low pressure
C
High temperature and high pressure
D
High temperature and low pressure
Paper Analysis
Total Questions
Biology 78
Chemistry 36
Physics 43
More Papers of NEET
NEET 2026 NEET 2025 NEET 2024 (Re-Examination) NEET 2024 NEET 2023 Manipur NEET 2023 NEET 2022 Phase 2 NEET 2022 Phase 1 NEET 2021 NEET 2020 Phase 1 NEET 2019 NEET 2018 NEET 2017 NEET 2016 Phase 2 NEET 2016 Phase 1 AIPMT 2015 AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper AIPMT 2014 NEET 2013 (Karnataka) NEET 2013 AIPMT 2012 Mains AIPMT 2012 Prelims AIPMT 2011 Mains AIPMT 2011 Prelims AIPMT 2010 Mains AIPMT 2010 Prelims AIPMT 2009 AIPMT 2008 AIPMT 2007 AIPMT 2006 AIPMT 2005 AIPMT 2004 AIPMT 2003 AIPMT 2002 AIPMT 2001 AIPMT 2000
NEET Papers
All year-wise previous year question papers
2014
2009
2008
2007
2006
2005
2004
2003
2002
2001
2000