Biology
1. What type of ecological pyramid would be
obtained with the following data?
Secondary consumer : 120 g
Primary consumer : 2. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ
conservation’ except 3. Pollen grains can be stored for several years
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of 4. Natality refers to 5. In a growing population of a country, 6. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given below.
.tg {border-colla 7. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 8. Which of the following hormones can play a
significant role in osteoporosis?
9. Which of these statements is incorrect? 10. Nissl’s bodies are mainly composed of
11. Which of the following options correctly
represents the lung conditions in asthma and
emphysema, respectively? 12. Casparian strips occur in 13. Plants having little or no secondary growth are 14. Which of the following events does not occur
in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
15. Which of the following is an occupational
respiratory disorder? 16. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 17. Select the wrong statement. 18. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by 19. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans? 20. Sweet potato is a modified 21. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
contraction because it
22. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in 23. The stage during which separation of the paired
homologous chromosomes begins is
24. Which of the following structures or regions is
incorrectly paired with its functions? 25. Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below.
.tg {border-coll 26. Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach? 27. Which of the following is an amino acid derived
hormone?
28. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in 29. Stomata in grass leaf are 30. Which of the following statements is correct? 31. Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterised by crop and gizzard in its digestive system. 32. Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm? 33. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 34. Which of the following is true for nucleolus? 35. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 36. Which among the following is not a prokaryote? 37. Which one is wrongly matched? 38. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration? 39. The Golgi complex participates in 40. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by 41. Select the incorrect match.
42. The two functional groups characteristic of
sugars are
43. Which of the following is not a product of light
reaction of photosynthesis? 44. Which of the following has proved helpful in
preserving pollen as fossils? 45. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs
of many vertebrates is an example of 46. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
sequence of the transcribed m 47. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of
evolution is 48. In India, the organisation responsible for
assessing the safety of introducing genetically
modified organisms for public 49. A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a
foreign company, though such varieties have
been present in India for a long t 50. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 51. Among the following sets of examples for
divergent evolution, select the incorrect option. 52. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched? 53. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
from 54. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain
Reaction (PCR) is 55. Pneumatophores occur in 56. Use of bioresources by multinational
companies and organisations without
authorisation from the concerned country and
it 57. Select the correct statement : 58. Which one of the following plants shows a
very close relationship with a species of moth,
where none of the two can comp 59. All of the following are part of an operon except 60. Double fertilization is 61. Which of the following characteristics represent 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans?
a. Dominance
b. Co-dominance 62. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
simultaneously. Such strings of 63. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
disease? 64. Winged pollen grains are present in 65. The experimental proof for semi-conservative
replication of DNA was first shown in a 66. Which one of the following population
interactions is widely used in medical science
for the production of antibiotics? 67. Select the correct match : 68. Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis? 69. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the
drug “smack”? 70. Niche is 71. The contraceptive ‘Saheli’ 72. Select the correct match : 73. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
lymphatic vessels? 74. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain
pregnancy are 75. The difference between spermiogenesis and
spermiation is 76. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
nutritional value by increasing the amount of 77. Which of the following is commonly used as a
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
human lymphocytes? 78. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
inherited by
Chemistry
1. The difference between amylose and amylopectin
is 2. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different
concentrations :
A. 60 mL $${ 3. Which of the following is correct with respect
to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl) 4. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
complex [Ni(CO)4] are 5. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
B, and with PCl5
gives C. B and C react together
to give diethyl ether. A, B 6. In the structure of ClF3
, the number of lone
pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is 7. Consider the change in oxidation state of
bromine corresponding to different emf values
as shown in the given diagram :
8. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
[CoCl2(en)2] is 9. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
yields a yellow precipitate with 10. In which case is number of molecules of water
maximum? 11. Which one is a wrong statement? 12. Which one of the following conditions will
favour maximum formation of the product in
the reaction
A2(g)
+ B2(g) ⇌ X2(g 13. In the reaction,
the electrophile involved is 14. The solubility of BaSO4
in water is
2.42 × 10–3 g L–1 at 298 K. The value of its
solubility product (Ksp) will be (Give 15. The correct order of N-compounds in its
decreasing order of oxidation states is 16. When initial concentration of the reactant is
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
reaction 17. Consider the following species : CN+
, CN–
, NO
and CN. Which one of these will have the
highest bond order? 18. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
elements is 19. For the redox reaction,
MnO4–
+ C2O4
2– + H+ $$ \to $$ Mn2+ + CO2
+ H2O
The correct coefficients of the reactants for
20. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5
is 21. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium
also gives m-nitroaniline because 22. Which of the following compounds can form a
zwitter ion? 23. Which of the following statements is not true
for halogens? 24. The compound C7H8
undergoes the following
reactions :
The product ‘C’ is 25. The bond dissociation energies of X2
, Y2
and
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. $$\Delta $$H for the
formation of XY 26. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
transition and paramagnetism as well? 27. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
comparable molecular mass. It i 28. Which of the following carbocations is
expected to be most stable? 29. Which one of the following elements is unable
to form MF63– ion? 30. Which of the following molecules represents
the order of hybridisation sp2
, sp2
, sp, sp from
left to right atoms? 31. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given
in Column II and assign the corr 32. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
Wurtz reaction is converted to gas 33. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
nature? 34. The correct difference between first and
second order reactions is that 35. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
following sequence of reactions :
36. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4
. The evolved
gaseous mixture is passed
Physics
1. The magnetic potential energy stored in a
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current
in the inductor is 60 mA. This ind 2. Two wires are made of the same material and
have the same volume. The first wire has
cross-sectional area A and the seco 3. The volume (V) of a monatomic
gas varies with its temperature
(T), as shown in the graph. The
ratio of work done by the 4. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
and the universal gravitational constant were
ten times larger in magnitud 5. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless
horizontal plane surface under the influence of
a uniform electric field 6. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth
inclined plane which makes an angle 7. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
directed electric field E. 8. A carbon resistor of (47 $$ \pm $$ 4.7) k$$\Omega $$ is to be marked
with rings of different colours for its identificat 9. A battery consists of a variable number n of
identical cells (having internal resistance r each)
which are connected in 10. A moving block having mass m, collides with
another stationary block having mass 4m. The
lighter block comes to rest aft 11. A body initially at rest
and sliding along a
frictionless track from
a height h (as shown
in the figure)
just completes 12. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
motion a body possesses translational kinetic
energy (Kt) as well as rot 13. The electrostatic force between the metal plates
of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having
a charge Q and area A, 14. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
atom, is 15. At what temperature will the rms speed of
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
escaping from the Earth’s atmosphe 16. A set of n equal resistors, of value R each, are
connected in series to a battery of emf E and
internal resistance R. Th 17. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
between the freezing point and boiling point
of water, is 18. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit v 19. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 $$\mu $$F and
a resistor 50 $$\Omega $$ are connected in series across
a source of em 20. The refractive index of the material of a prism
is $$\sqrt 2 $$ and the angle of the prism is 30°. One
of the two refrac 21. In Young’s double slit experiment the
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
wavelength $$\lambda $$ of the light u 22. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
sufficiently high building and is moving freely
to and fro like a simple harmonic 23. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
plane surface of a material of refractive index
$$\mu $$. At a particular an 24. In the combination of the following gates
the output Y can be written in terms of inputs
A and B as
25. An EM wave is propagating in a medium with
a velocity $$\overrightarrow v = v\widehat i$$. The instantaneous
oscillatin 26. An astronomical refracting telescope will have
large angular magnification and high angular
resolution, when it has an o 27. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
$$\overrightarrow v = {v_0}\widehat i$$ (v0 > 0)
enters an electric 28. When the light of frequency 2$${\upsilon _0}$$
(where $${\upsilon _0}$$
is
threshold frequency), is incident on a meta 29. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
If the object is displaced throu 30. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
due to heating 31. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined
wedge ABC of inclination q as shown in the
figure. The wedge is given a 32. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
organ pipe. If the length of 33. A student measured the diameter of a small
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
0.001 cm. The main scale readin 34. The kinetic energies of
a planet in an elliptical
orbit about the Sun, at
positions A, B and C are
KA, KB and KC, respec 35. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect? 36. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal
pressure (1.013 × 105
N m–2) requires 54 cal
of heat energy to convert t 37. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
between the poles of an electromagnet. When
the current in the electromagnet 38. The power radiated by a black body is P and it
radiates maximum energy at wavelength, $$\lambda $$0
. If
the temperature 39. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of
the sphere is increased keeping i 40. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in
a glass tube. The length of the air column in
this tube can be adjusted by 41. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each
have the same mass M and 42. The moment of the force, $$\overrightarrow F = 4\widehat i + 5\widehat j - 6\widehat k$$ at
(2, 0, –3), about the point 43. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
due to viscous force. Th
1
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| A. Glycosuria | (i) Accumulation of uric acid in joints |
| B. Gout | (ii) Mass of crystallised salts within the kidney |
| C. Renal calculi | (iii) Inflammation in glomeruli |
| D. Glomerular nephritis | (iv) Presence of glucose in urine |
A
A $$ \to $$ (iv), B $$ \to $$ (i), C $$ \to $$ (ii), D $$ \to $$ (iii)
B
A $$ \to $$ (ii), B $$ \to $$ (iii), C $$ \to $$ (i), D $$ \to $$ (iv)
C
A $$ \to $$ (iii), B $$ \to $$ (ii), C $$ \to $$ (iv), D $$ \to $$ (i)
D
A $$ \to $$ (i), B $$ \to $$ (ii), C $$ \to $$ (iii), D $$ \to $$ (iv)
2
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which among the following is not a prokaryote?
A
Mycobacterium
B
Saccharomyces
C
Oscillatoria
D
Nostoc
3
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which one is wrongly matched?
A
Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
B
Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
C
Unicellular organism – Chlorella
D
Gemma cups – Marchantia
4
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration?
A
It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic
respiration.
B
It functions as an enzyme.
C
It functions as an electron carrier.
D
It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
Paper Analysis
Total Questions
Biology 78
Chemistry 36
Physics 43
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