Biology
1. Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below.
.tg {border-coll 2. Which among the following is not a prokaryote? 3. Select the wrong statement. 4. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by 5. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in 6. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in 7. Which of the following statements is correct? 8. Which one is wrongly matched? 9. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans? 10. Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis? 11. Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterised by crop and gizzard in its digestive system. 12. Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm? 13. Sweet potato is a modified 14. Stomata in grass leaf are 15. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by 16. Casparian strips occur in 17. Which of the following is true for nucleolus? 18. Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach? 19. The Golgi complex participates in 20. Plants having little or no secondary growth are 21. Which of the following events does not occur
in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
22. Select the incorrect match.
23. The two functional groups characteristic of
sugars are
24. The stage during which separation of the paired
homologous chromosomes begins is
25. Stomatal movement is not affected by 26. Which of the following elements is responsible
for maintaining turgor in cells? 27. In which of the following forms is iron absorbed
by plants? 28. Which of the following terms describe human
dentition? 29. Which of the following is not a product of light
reaction of photosynthesis? 30. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 31. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 32. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
help in erythropoiesis? 33. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given below.
.tg {border-colla 34. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 35. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 36. Which of the following options correctly
represents the lung conditions in asthma and
emphysema, respectively? 37. Which of the following is an occupational
respiratory disorder? 38. Which of these statements is incorrect? 39. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration? 40. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
contraction because it
41. Nissl’s bodies are mainly composed of
42. Which of the following structures or regions is
incorrectly paired with its functions? 43. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in
its place by 44. Which of the following hormones can play a
significant role in osteoporosis?
45. Which of the following is an amino acid derived
hormone?
46. Offsets are produced by 47. Which of the following flowers only once in
its lifetime?
48. Which of the following has proved helpful in
preserving pollen as fossils? 49. The difference between spermiogenesis and
spermiation is 50. Winged pollen grains are present in 51. Double fertilization is 52. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain
pregnancy are 53. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
from 54. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 55. The contraceptive ‘Saheli’ 56. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
inherited by 57. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched? 58. Select the correct match : 59. Which of the following characteristics represent 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans?
a. Dominance
b. Co-dominance 60. The experimental proof for semi-conservative
replication of DNA was first shown in a 61. Select the correct statement : 62. Select the correct match : 63. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
simultaneously. Such strings of 64. Among the following sets of examples for
divergent evolution, select the incorrect option. 65. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs
of many vertebrates is an example of 66. All of the following are part of an operon except 67. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
sequence of the transcribed m 68. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
disease? 69. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of
evolution is 70. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
lymphatic vessels? 71. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
nutritional value by increasing the amount of 72. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the
drug “smack”? 73. Which one of the following population
interactions is widely used in medical science
for the production of antibiotics? 74. Niche is 75. Natality refers to 76. In India, the organisation responsible for
assessing the safety of introducing genetically
modified organisms for public 77. Which of the following is commonly used as a
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
human lymphocytes? 78. Pneumatophores occur in 79. Use of bioresources by multinational
companies and organisations without
authorisation from the concerned country and
it 80. A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a
foreign company, though such varieties have
been present in India for a long t 81. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain
Reaction (PCR) is 82. Which one of the following plants shows a
very close relationship with a species of moth,
where none of the two can comp 83. Pollen grains can be stored for several years
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of 84. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ
conservation’ except 85. What type of ecological pyramid would be
obtained with the following data?
Secondary consumer : 120 g
Primary consumer : 86. In a growing population of a country, 87. World Ozone Day is celebrated on 88. In stratosphere, which of the following elements
acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and
release of molecular oxy 89. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant? 90. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla
Chemistry
1. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4
. The evolved
gaseous mixture is passed 2. Which one is a wrong statement? 3. In which case is number of molecules of water
maximum? 4. Consider the following species : CN+
, CN–
, NO
and CN. Which one of these will have the
highest bond order? 5. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
nature? 6. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
elements is 7. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas
equation corresponds to 8. The bond dissociation energies of X2
, Y2
and
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. $$\Delta $$H for the
formation of XY 9. In the structure of ClF3
, the number of lone
pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is 10. Given van der Waals’ constant for NH3
, H2,
O2
and CO2
are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36
and 3.59, which one of the f 11. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different
concentrations :
A. 60 mL $${ 12. The solubility of BaSO4
in water is
2.42 × 10–3 g L–1 at 298 K. The value of its
solubility product (Ksp) will be (Give 13. Which one of the following conditions will
favour maximum formation of the product in
the reaction
A2(g)
+ B2(g) ⇌ X2(g 14. For the redox reaction,
MnO4–
+ C2O4
2– + H+ $$ \to $$ Mn2+ + CO2
+ H2O
The correct coefficients of the reactants for
15. Consider the change in oxidation state of
bromine corresponding to different emf values
as shown in the given diagram :
16. The correct order of N-compounds in its
decreasing order of oxidation states is 17. Among CaH2
, BeH2
, BaH2
, the order of ionic
character is 18. Which of the following is correct with respect
to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl) 19. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form
an ionic compound. If the ground state
electronic configuration of (X) is 1 20. Which one of the following elements is unable
to form MF63– ion? 21. Which of the following molecules represents
the order of hybridisation sp2
, sp2
, sp, sp from
left to right atoms? 22. Which of the following carbocations is
expected to be most stable? 23. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
due to natural and human activity? 24. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
Wurtz reaction is converted to gas 25. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature.
Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The
ratio of density of ir 26. The correct difference between first and
second order reactions is that 27. On which of the following properties does the
coagulating power of an ion depend? 28. When initial concentration of the reactant is
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
reaction 29. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the
following metals can be used to reduce
alumina? 30. Which of the following statements is not true
for halogens? 31. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
transition and paramagnetism as well? 32. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given
in Column II and assign the corr 33. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
complex [Ni(CO)4] are 34. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
[CoCl2(en)2] is 35. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5
is 36. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
B, and with PCl5
gives C. B and C react together
to give diethyl ether. A, B 37. In the reaction,
the electrophile involved is 38. The compound C7H8
undergoes the following
reactions :
The product ‘C’ is 39. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
yields a yellow precipitate with 40. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
following sequence of reactions :
41. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
comparable molecular mass. It i 42. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium
also gives m-nitroaniline because 43. Which of the following compounds can form a
zwitter ion? 44. The difference between amylose and amylopectin
is 45. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
which of the following statements is incorrect?
Physics
1. A student measured the diameter of a small
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
0.001 cm. The main scale readin 2. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect? 3. A moving block having mass m, collides with
another stationary block having mass 4m. The
lighter block comes to rest aft 4. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined
wedge ABC of inclination q as shown in the
figure. The wedge is given a 5. A body initially at rest
and sliding along a
frictionless track from
a height h (as shown
in the figure)
just completes 6. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
motion a body possesses translational kinetic
energy (Kt) as well as rot 7. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of
the sphere is increased keeping i 8. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
between the freezing point and boiling point
of water, is 9. The kinetic energies of
a planet in an elliptical
orbit about the Sun, at
positions A, B and C are
KA, KB and KC, respec 10. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal
pressure (1.013 × 105
N m–2) requires 54 cal
of heat energy to convert t 11. The volume (V) of a monatomic
gas varies with its temperature
(T), as shown in the graph. The
ratio of work done by the 12. Two wires are made of the same material and
have the same volume. The first wire has
cross-sectional area A and the seco 13. The power radiated by a black body is P and it
radiates maximum energy at wavelength, $$\lambda $$0
. If
the temperature 14. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each
have the same mass M and 15. The moment of the force, $$\overrightarrow F = 4\widehat i + 5\widehat j - 6\widehat k$$ at
(2, 0, –3), about the point 16. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
due to viscous force. Th 17. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
and the universal gravitational constant were
ten times larger in magnitud 18. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
organ pipe. If the length of 19. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
sufficiently high building and is moving freely
to and fro like a simple harmonic 20. The electrostatic force between the metal plates
of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having
a charge Q and area A, 21. At what temperature will the rms speed of
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
escaping from the Earth’s atmosphe 22. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
directed electric field E. 23. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in
a glass tube. The length of the air column in
this tube can be adjusted by 24. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless
horizontal plane surface under the influence of
a uniform electric field 25. A battery consists of a variable number n of
identical cells (having internal resistance r each)
which are connected in 26. A carbon resistor of (47 $$ \pm $$ 4.7) k$$\Omega $$ is to be marked
with rings of different colours for its identificat 27. A set of n equal resistors, of value R each, are
connected in series to a battery of emf E and
internal resistance R. Th 28. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth
inclined plane which makes an angle 29. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
between the poles of an electromagnet. When
the current in the electromagnet 30. The magnetic potential energy stored in a
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current
in the inductor is 60 mA. This ind 31. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit v 32. An EM wave is propagating in a medium with
a velocity $$\overrightarrow v = v\widehat i$$. The instantaneous
oscillatin 33. The refractive index of the material of a prism
is $$\sqrt 2 $$ and the angle of the prism is 30°. One
of the two refrac 34. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 $$\mu $$F and
a resistor 50 $$\Omega $$ are connected in series across
a source of em 35. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
If the object is displaced throu 36. In Young’s double slit experiment the
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
wavelength $$\lambda $$ of the light u 37. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
plane surface of a material of refractive index
$$\mu $$. At a particular an 38. An astronomical refracting telescope will have
large angular magnification and high angular
resolution, when it has an o 39. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
$$\overrightarrow v = {v_0}\widehat i$$ (v0 > 0)
enters an electric 40. When the light of frequency 2$${\upsilon _0}$$
(where $${\upsilon _0}$$
is
threshold frequency), is incident on a meta 41. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
voltage Vi
is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
values of IB
, IC
and $$\bet 42. In the combination of the following gates
the output Y can be written in terms of inputs
A and B as
43. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
atom, is 44. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10
minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
nuclei, the time taken (in min 45. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
due to heating
1
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
An astronomical refracting telescope will have
large angular magnification and high angular
resolution, when it has an objective lens of
A
small focal length and large diameter
B
large focal length and small diameter
C
large focal length and large diameter
D
small focal length and small diameter
2
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
$$\overrightarrow v = {v_0}\widehat i$$ (v0 > 0)
enters an electric field
$$\overrightarrow E = - {\overrightarrow E _0}\widehat i$$
(E0
= constant > 0) at t = 0. If $$\lambda $$0
is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its
de- Broglie wavelength at time t is
A
$${{{\lambda _0}} \over {\left( {1 + {{e{E_0}} \over {m{v_0}}}t} \right)}}$$
B
$${{\lambda _0}\left( {1 + {{e{E_0}} \over {m{v_0}}}t} \right)}$$
C
$$\lambda $$0t
D
$$\lambda $$0
3
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
When the light of frequency 2$${\upsilon _0}$$
(where $${\upsilon _0}$$
is
threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons
emitted is v1
. When the frequency of the
incident radiation is increased to 5$${\upsilon _0}$$
, the
maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
the same plate is v2
. The ratio of v1
to v2
is
A
1 : 2
B
1 : 4
C
4 : 1
D
2 : 1
4
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Out of Syllabus
In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
voltage Vi
is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
values of IB
, IC
and $$\beta $$ are given by
A
IB
= 40 $$\mu $$A, IC
= 10 mA, $$\beta $$ = 250
B
IB
= 25 $$\mu $$A, IC
= 5 mA, $$\beta $$ = 200
C
IB
= 20 $$\mu $$A, IC
= 5 mA, $$\beta $$ = 250
D
IB
= 40 $$\mu $$A, IC
= 5 mA, $$\beta $$ = 125
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
90
Chemistry
45
Physics
45
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