Biology
1. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 2. The stage during which separation of the paired
homologous chromosomes begins is
3. Which of the following is not a product of light
reaction of photosynthesis? 4. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 5. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 6. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given below.
.tg {border-colla 7. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 8. The two functional groups characteristic of
sugars are
9. Which of the following options correctly
represents the lung conditions in asthma and
emphysema, respectively? 10. Which of the following is an occupational
respiratory disorder? 11. Which of these statements is incorrect? 12. What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration? 13. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
contraction because it
14. Nissl’s bodies are mainly composed of
15. Which of the following structures or regions is
incorrectly paired with its functions? 16. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in
its place by 17. Which of the following hormones can play a
significant role in osteoporosis?
18. Which of the following is an amino acid derived
hormone?
19. Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm? 20. Which among the following is not a prokaryote? 21. Select the wrong statement. 22. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by 23. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in 24. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in 25. Which of the following statements is correct? 26. Which one is wrongly matched? 27. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans? 28. Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis? 29. Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterised by crop and gizzard in its digestive system. 30. Sweet potato is a modified 31. Stomata in grass leaf are 32. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by 33. Casparian strips occur in 34. Which of the following is true for nucleolus? 35. Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach? 36. The Golgi complex participates in 37. Plants having little or no secondary growth are 38. Which of the following events does not occur
in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
39. Select the incorrect match.
40. Use of bioresources by multinational
companies and organisations without
authorisation from the concerned country and
it 41. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
disease? 42. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of
evolution is 43. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
lymphatic vessels? 44. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
nutritional value by increasing the amount of 45. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the
drug “smack”? 46. Which one of the following population
interactions is widely used in medical science
for the production of antibiotics? 47. Niche is 48. Natality refers to 49. In India, the organisation responsible for
assessing the safety of introducing genetically
modified organisms for public 50. Which of the following is commonly used as a
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
human lymphocytes? 51. Pneumatophores occur in 52. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
sequence of the transcribed m 53. A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a
foreign company, though such varieties have
been present in India for a long t 54. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain
Reaction (PCR) is 55. Which one of the following plants shows a
very close relationship with a species of moth,
where none of the two can comp 56. Pollen grains can be stored for several years
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of 57. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ
conservation’ except 58. What type of ecological pyramid would be
obtained with the following data?
Secondary consumer : 120 g
Primary consumer : 59. In a growing population of a country, 60. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched? 61. Which of the following has proved helpful in
preserving pollen as fossils? 62. The difference between spermiogenesis and
spermiation is 63. Winged pollen grains are present in 64. Double fertilization is 65. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain
pregnancy are 66. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
from 67. Match the items given in column I with those in
column II and select the correct option given
below.
.tg {border-colla 68. The contraceptive ‘Saheli’ 69. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
inherited by 70. Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below.
.tg {border-coll 71. Select the correct match : 72. Which of the following characteristics represent 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans?
a. Dominance
b. Co-dominance 73. The experimental proof for semi-conservative
replication of DNA was first shown in a 74. Select the correct statement : 75. Select the correct match : 76. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
simultaneously. Such strings of 77. Among the following sets of examples for
divergent evolution, select the incorrect option. 78. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs
of many vertebrates is an example of 79. All of the following are part of an operon except
Chemistry
1. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5
is 2. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
Wurtz reaction is converted to gas 3. The correct difference between first and
second order reactions is that 4. When initial concentration of the reactant is
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
reaction 5. Which of the following statements is not true
for halogens? 6. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
transition and paramagnetism as well? 7. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given
in Column II and assign the corr 8. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
complex [Ni(CO)4] are 9. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
[CoCl2(en)2] is 10. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
B, and with PCl5
gives C. B and C react together
to give diethyl ether. A, B 11. In the reaction,
the electrophile involved is 12. The compound C7H8
undergoes the following
reactions :
The product ‘C’ is 13. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
yields a yellow precipitate with 14. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
following sequence of reactions :
15. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
comparable molecular mass. It i 16. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium
also gives m-nitroaniline because 17. Which of the following compounds can form a
zwitter ion? 18. The difference between amylose and amylopectin
is 19. The solubility of BaSO4
in water is
2.42 × 10–3 g L–1 at 298 K. The value of its
solubility product (Ksp) will be (Give 20. In which case is number of molecules of water
maximum? 21. Consider the following species : CN+
, CN–
, NO
and CN. Which one of these will have the
highest bond order? 22. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
nature? 23. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
elements is 24. The bond dissociation energies of X2
, Y2
and
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. $$\Delta $$H for the
formation of XY 25. In the structure of ClF3
, the number of lone
pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is 26. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different
concentrations :
A. 60 mL $${ 27. Which one of the following conditions will
favour maximum formation of the product in
the reaction
A2(g)
+ B2(g) ⇌ X2(g 28. For the redox reaction,
MnO4–
+ C2O4
2– + H+ $$ \to $$ Mn2+ + CO2
+ H2O
The correct coefficients of the reactants for
29. Consider the change in oxidation state of
bromine corresponding to different emf values
as shown in the given diagram :
30. The correct order of N-compounds in its
decreasing order of oxidation states is 31. Which of the following is correct with respect
to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl) 32. Which one of the following elements is unable
to form MF63– ion? 33. Which of the following molecules represents
the order of hybridisation sp2
, sp2
, sp, sp from
left to right atoms? 34. Which of the following carbocations is
expected to be most stable? 35. Which one is a wrong statement? 36. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4
. The evolved
gaseous mixture is passed
Physics
1. A student measured the diameter of a small
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
0.001 cm. The main scale readin 2. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
If the object is displaced throu 3. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless
horizontal plane surface under the influence of
a uniform electric field 4. A battery consists of a variable number n of
identical cells (having internal resistance r each)
which are connected in 5. A carbon resistor of (47 $$ \pm $$ 4.7) k$$\Omega $$ is to be marked
with rings of different colours for its identificat 6. A set of n equal resistors, of value R each, are
connected in series to a battery of emf E and
internal resistance R. Th 7. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth
inclined plane which makes an angle 8. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
between the poles of an electromagnet. When
the current in the electromagnet 9. The magnetic potential energy stored in a
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current
in the inductor is 60 mA. This ind 10. Current sensitivity of a moving coil
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit v 11. An EM wave is propagating in a medium with
a velocity $$\overrightarrow v = v\widehat i$$. The instantaneous
oscillatin 12. The refractive index of the material of a prism
is $$\sqrt 2 $$ and the angle of the prism is 30°. One
of the two refrac 13. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 $$\mu $$F and
a resistor 50 $$\Omega $$ are connected in series across
a source of em 14. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in
a glass tube. The length of the air column in
this tube can be adjusted by 15. In Young’s double slit experiment the
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
wavelength $$\lambda $$ of the light u 16. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
plane surface of a material of refractive index
$$\mu $$. At a particular an 17. An astronomical refracting telescope will have
large angular magnification and high angular
resolution, when it has an o 18. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
$$\overrightarrow v = {v_0}\widehat i$$ (v0 > 0)
enters an electric 19. When the light of frequency 2$${\upsilon _0}$$
(where $${\upsilon _0}$$
is
threshold frequency), is incident on a meta 20. In the combination of the following gates
the output Y can be written in terms of inputs
A and B as
21. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
atom, is 22. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
due to heating 23. Two wires are made of the same material and
have the same volume. The first wire has
cross-sectional area A and the seco 24. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect? 25. A moving block having mass m, collides with
another stationary block having mass 4m. The
lighter block comes to rest aft 26. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined
wedge ABC of inclination q as shown in the
figure. The wedge is given a 27. A body initially at rest
and sliding along a
frictionless track from
a height h (as shown
in the figure)
just completes 28. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
motion a body possesses translational kinetic
energy (Kt) as well as rot 29. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of
the sphere is increased keeping i 30. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
between the freezing point and boiling point
of water, is 31. The kinetic energies of
a planet in an elliptical
orbit about the Sun, at
positions A, B and C are
KA, KB and KC, respec 32. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal
pressure (1.013 × 105
N m–2) requires 54 cal
of heat energy to convert t 33. The volume (V) of a monatomic
gas varies with its temperature
(T), as shown in the graph. The
ratio of work done by the 34. The power radiated by a black body is P and it
radiates maximum energy at wavelength, $$\lambda $$0
. If
the temperature 35. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each
have the same mass M and 36. The moment of the force, $$\overrightarrow F = 4\widehat i + 5\widehat j - 6\widehat k$$ at
(2, 0, –3), about the point 37. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
due to viscous force. Th 38. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
and the universal gravitational constant were
ten times larger in magnitud 39. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
organ pipe. If the length of 40. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
sufficiently high building and is moving freely
to and fro like a simple harmonic 41. The electrostatic force between the metal plates
of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having
a charge Q and area A, 42. At what temperature will the rms speed of
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
escaping from the Earth’s atmosphe 43. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
directed electric field E.
1
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
In a growing population of a country,
A
pre-reproductive individuals are more than
the reproductive individuals
B
reproductive individuals are less than the
post-reproductive individuals
C
reproductive and pre-reproductive
individuals are equal in number
D
pre-reproductive individuals are less than
the reproductive individuals.
2
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
A
Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
B
ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
C
XO type sex determination: Grasshopper
D
T.H. Morgan : Linkage
3
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which of the following has proved helpful in
preserving pollen as fossils?
A
Pollenkitt
B
Cellulosic intine
C
Oil content
D
Sporopollenin
4
NEET 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The difference between spermiogenesis and
spermiation is
A
in spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
while in spermiation spermatozoa are
formed
B
in spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed,
while in spermiation spermatids are formed
C
in spermiogenesis spermatozoa from Sertoli
cells are released into the cavity of
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
spermatozoa are formed
D
in spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed,
while in spermiation spermatozoa are
released from Sertoli cells into the cavity
of seminiferous tubules
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
79
Chemistry
36
Physics
43
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