Biology
1. When CO2 concentration in blood increases breathing becomes 2. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following 3. In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during the dark reaction is 4. Plants adapted to low light intensity have 5. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by 6. Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants takes place due to 7. One set of the plant was grown at 12 hours day and 12 hours night period cycles and it flowered while in the other set n 8. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content. Which of the following con 9. Which one of the following precedes reformation of the nuclear envelope during M phase of the cell cycle? 10. You are required to draw blood from a patient and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of blood corpuscles and plasma. 11. In the resting state of the neural membrane, diffusion due to concentration gradients, if allowed, would drive 12. Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect 13. Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency? 14. Which one of the following hormones is modified amino acid? 15. Chemically hormones are 16. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to 17. When a diploid female plant is crossed with a tetraploid male, the ploidy of endosperm cells in the resulting seed is 18. An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to the funicle is 19. Diversification in plant life appeared 20. Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses? 21. Viruses that infect bacteria multiply and cause their lysis, are called 22. Phenetic classification of organisms is based on 23. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which can also symbiotic association with the water ferm Azolla is 24. During replication of a bacterial chromosome DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin site and 25. Lichens are well known combination of an alga and a fungus where fungus has 26. Which of the following hormones is not a
secretion product of human placenta - 27. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily because of their 28. In Arthropoda, hend and thorax are often used to form cephalothorax, but in which one of the following classes, is the b 29. The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the Ph 30. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that 31. Uricotelism is found in 32. When a fresh-water protozoan possessing a contractile vacuole, is placed in a glass containing marrine water, the vacuol 33. One of the following is a very unique feature of the mammalian body 34. Edible part of mango is 35. Which one of the following enzymes, is copper necessarily associated as an activator? 36. In the somatic cell cycle 37. Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland
ecosystem ? 38. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? 39. Restriction endonucleases :- 40. In transgenics expression of transgene in target
tissue is determined by :- 41. DNA fingerprinting refers to :- 42. ELISA is used to detect viruses, wherethe key reagent is :- 43. The Ti plasmid is often used for making
transgenic plants. This plasmid is found in 44. Certain characteristic demographic features of
developing countries are - 45. What is a keystone species ? 46. The maximum growth rate occurs in :- 47. In which of the following pairs is the specific
characteristic of a soil not correctly matched ? 48. In which one of the following habitats does the
diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most ? 49. The most thoroughly studied of the known
bacteria-plant interactions is the :- 50. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but
can recover after some time if damaging effect
stops will be having - 51. In your opinion, which is the most effective way
to conserve the plant diversity of an area ? 52. In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from
the tip upward, the four zones occur in the
following order :- 53. Mast cells of connective tissue contain - 54. In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the :- 55. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes
consist of short sequences of 56. A major component of gobar gas is 57. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced
by guanine, it is a case of - 58. Ovulation in the human female normally takes
place during the menstrual cycle - 59. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow
fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over
shortness (t). If a plant 60. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A
and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to :- 61. A male human is heterozygous for autosomal
genes A and B and is also hemizygous for
hemophilic gene h. What proportion o 62. One of the parents of a cross has a mutation in
its mitochondria. In that cross, that parent is
taken as a male. During 63. A normal woman, whose father was colour-blind
is married to a normal man. The sons would be :- 64. The recessive genes located on X-chromosomes
in humans are always- 65. During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence
of the DNA strand that is being coded is
ATACG, then the nucleotide seq 66. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling
clover leaf ? 67. After a mutation at a genetic locus the character
of an organism changes due to the change in :- 68. The following ratio is generally constant for a
given species :- 69. Age of fossils in the past was generally
determined by radio-carbon method and other
methods involving radioactive eleme 70. What kind of evidence suggested that man is
more closely related with chimpanzee than with
other hominoid apes ? 71. Which one of the following is living fossil ? 72. Diversification in plant life appeared 73. According to oparin, which one of the following
was not present in the primitive atmosphere of
the earth ? 74. Which one of the following is not correctly
matched ? 75. Dough kept overnight in warm weather
becomes soft and spongy because of :-
Chemistry
1. CN$$-$$ is a strong field ligand. This is due to the fact that 2. In an octahedral structure, the pair of $$d$$ orbitals involved in d2sp3 hybridisation is 3. Which of the following does not have a metal carbon bond? 4. Which of the following is considered to be an anticancer species? 5. Among [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2$$-$$, [NiCl4]2$$-$$ species, the hybridisation states at the Ni atom are, respectively
[Atom 6. The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$2 mol L$$-$$1 min$$-$$1 at 0.5 M concentration of the reac 7. In a reaction of aniline a coloured product C was obtained.
The structure of C would be 8. The correct statement in respect of protein haemoglobin is that it 9. Number of chiral carbons in $$\beta $$-$$D$$-(+) glucose is 10. A sequence of how many nucleotides in messenger RNA makes a codon for an amino acid? 11. The hormone that helps in the conversion of glucose to glycogen is 12. The helical structure of protein is stablised by 13. Which of the following structures represents the peptide chain? 14. The standard e.m.f. of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction with n = 2 is found to be 0.295 V at 25oC. The equilibriu 15. Which one of the following can be oxidised to the corresponding carbonyl compound? 16. Which one of the following statements about the zeolite is false? 17. Among K, Ca, Fe and Zn, the element which can from more than one binary compound with chlorine is 18. lanthanoids are 19. Among the following series of transition metal ions, the one where all metal ions have 3d2 electronic configuration is
20. The radioactive isotope $${}_{27}^{60}$$Co which is used in the treatment of cancer can be made by (n.p) reaction. For t 21. Considering H2O as a weak field ligand, the number of unpaired electrons in [Mn(H2O)6]2+ will be (atomic number of Mn = 22. Which of the following coordination compounds would exhibit optical isomerism? 23. The work done during the expansion of a gas from a volume of 4 dm3 to 6 dm3 against a constant external pressure of 3 at 24. The maximum number of molecules is present in 25. The frequency of radiation emitted when the electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in hydrogen atom will be (Given ionizatio 26. Ionic radii are 27. In a regular octahedral molecule, MX6 the number of X $$-$$ M $$-$$ X bonds at 180o is 28. Among the following, the pair in which the two species are not isostructural is 29. H2O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is because 30. In BrF3 molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize 31. If the bond energies of H $$-$$ H, Br $$-$$ Br, and H $$-$$ Br are 433, 192 and 364 kJ mol$$-$$1 respectively, the $$\De 32. Standard enthalpy and standard entropy changes for the oxidation of ammonia at 298 K are $$-$$ 382.64 kJ mol$$-$$1 and $ 33. Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamic parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of any process is 34. The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt AX2 is 3.2 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$11. Its solubility (in moles/L) is 35. The rapid change of pH near the stoichiometric point of an acid-base titration is the basis of indicator detection. pH o 36. The molecular formula of diphenyl methane,
How many structural isomers are possible when one of the hydrogen is replace 37. The $$-$$ OH group of an alcohol or the $$-$$ COOH group of a carboxylic acid can be replaced by $$-$$ Cl using 38. Using anhydrous AlCl3 as catalyst, which one of the following reactions produces ethylbenzene (PhEt)? 39. Reaction of HBr with propene in the presence of peroxide gives 40. Which of the following is least reactive in a nucleophilic sibstitution reaction? 41. Which one of the following will not form a yellow precipitate on heating with an alkaline solution of iodine? 42. Which is the best description of the behaviour of bromine in the reaction given below?
H2O + Br2 $$ \to $$ HOBr + HBr
Physics
1. The refractive index of the material of a prism is $$\sqrt 2 $$ and its refracting angle is 30o. One of the refracting s 2. Five equal resistances each of resistances R are connected as shown in the figure. A battery of V volts is connected bet 3. when three identical bulbs of 60 watt, 200 volt rating are connected in series to a 200 volt supply, the power drawn by 4. A 6 volt battery is connected to the terminals of a three metre long wire of uniform thickness and resistance of 100 oh 5. In India electricity is supplied for domestic use at 220 V. It is supplied at 110 V in USA. If the resistance of a 60 W 6. Resistance n, each of r ohm, when connected in parallel give an equivalent resistance of R ohm. If these resistances we 7. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both doubled, then 8. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25 divisions. A current of 4 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$4 ampere gives a deflection of 9. To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter one should connect a 10. A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the combination is joined to the ter 11. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount $$\Delta $$$$\phi $$ in a time $$\Delta $$t. Th 12. A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm diameter and is situated at a distance of one kilometer from two objects. The 13. An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q and its dipole moment is p. It is placed in a uniform electric f 14. A beam of light composed of red and green ray is incident obliquely at a point on the face of rectangular glass slab. Wh 15. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected and the f 16. If M(A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus $${}_Z^AX,$$ proton and neutron respectively in units of u (1 u = 17. The Bohr model of atoms 18. If in a nuclear fusion process the masses of the fusing nuclei be m1 and m2 and the mass of the resultant nucleus be m3, 19. In semiconductors at a room temperature 20. The peak voltage in the output of a half wave diode rectifier fed with a sinusoidal signal without filter is 10 V. The d 21. The output of OR gate is 1 22. A round disc of moment of inertia $$I$$2 about its axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre is pl 23. The unit of permittyvity of free space, $${\varepsilon _0}$$, is 24. If $$\left| {\overrightarrow A \times \overrightarrow B } \right| = \sqrt 3 \overrightarrow A .\overrightarrow B $$ the 25. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of inclination $$\theta $$. The whole system is accelerated horizontally s 26. The coefficient of static friction, $$\mu $$s, between block A of mass 2 kg and the table as shown in the figure is 0.2. 27. A ball of mass 2 kg and another of mass 4 kg are dropped together from a 60 feet ball building. After a fall of 30 feet 28. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity v1 and another particle of mass m2 is moving with a velocity v2. Both 29. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly weightless spring o 30. Three particles, each of mass m gram, are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side $$l$$ cm (as s 31. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg m2 about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm about this axis. The tor 32. Consider a system of two particles having masses m1 and m2. If the particle of mass m1 is pushed towards the mass centre 33. Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams, which one is reverse biased ? 34. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc about a tangential axis in the plane of the disc and of a circular 35. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of earth. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the p 36. If $$\lambda $$m denotes the wavelength at which the radioactive amission from a black body at a temperature TK is max 37. The equation of state for 5 g of oxygen at a pressure P and temperature T, when occupying a volume V, will be
(where R 38. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of T K does 6R joule of work adiabatically. If the ratio of specific 39. Two springs of spring constants k1 and k2 are joined in series. The effective spring constant of the combination is give 40. A particle executing simple harmonic motion of amplitude 5 cm has maximum speed of 31.4 cm/s. The frequency of its oscil 41. The phase difference between two waves. represented by
y1 = 10$$-$$6 sin[100t + (x/50) + 0.5] m
y2 = 10$$-$$6 cos[100t + 42. A bullet of mass 2 g is having a charge of 2 $$\mu $$C. Through what potential difference must it be accelerated, starti 43. The dimensions of universal gravitational constant are
1
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both doubled, then
A
The resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved.
B
The resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged.
C
The resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled.
D
The resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged.
2
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25 divisions. A current of 4 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$4 ampere gives a deflection of one division. To convert this galvanometer into a voltmeter having a range of 25 volts, it should be connected with a resistance of
A
$$2500\,\Omega $$ as a shunt
B
2450 $$\Omega $$ as a shunt
C
2550 $$\Omega $$ in series
D
2450 $$\Omega $$ in series
3
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter one should connect a
A
high resistance in series with galvanometer
B
low resistance in series with galvanometer
C
high resistance in parallel wilh galvanometer
D
low resistance in parallel with galvanometer.
4
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the combination is joined to the terminals of a 2 volt battery. The time constant of the circuit is
A
5 seconds
B
1/5 seconds
C
40 seconds
D
20 seconds
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
75
Chemistry
42
Physics
43
More papers of NEET
NEET 2024 (Re-Examination)
NEET 2024
NEET 2023 Manipur
NEET 2023
NEET 2022 Phase 2
NEET 2022 Phase 1
NEET 2021
NEET 2020 Phase 1
NEET 2019
NEET 2018
NEET 2017
NEET 2016 Phase 2
NEET 2016 Phase 1
AIPMT 2015
AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper
AIPMT 2014
NEET 2013 (Karnataka)
NEET 2013
AIPMT 2012 Mains
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
AIPMT 2011 Mains
AIPMT 2011 Prelims
AIPMT 2010 Mains
AIPMT 2010 Prelims
AIPMT 2009
AIPMT 2008
AIPMT 2007
AIPMT 2006
AIPMT 2005
AIPMT 2004
AIPMT 2003
AIPMT 2002
AIPMT 2001
AIPMT 2000
NEET
Papers
2014
2009
2008
2007
2006
2005
2004
2003
2002
2001
2000