Biology
1. When CO2 concentration in blood increases breathing becomes 2. In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during the dark reaction is 3. In the somatic cell cycle 4. Which one of the following precedes reformation of the nuclear envelope during M phase of the cell cycle? 5. One set of the plant was grown at 12 hours day and 12 hours night period cycles and it flowered while in the other set n 6. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by 7. Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants takes place due to 8. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content. Which of the following con 9. Plants adapted to low light intensity have 10. You are required to draw blood from a patient and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of blood corpuscles and plasma. 11. In the resting state of the neural membrane, diffusion due to concentration gradients, if allowed, would drive 12. Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency? 13. Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect 14. Which one of the following hormones is modified amino acid? 15. Chemically hormones are 16. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to 17. When a diploid female plant is crossed with a tetraploid male, the ploidy of endosperm cells in the resulting seed is 18. An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to the funicle is 19. Diversification in plant life appeared 20. During replication of a bacterial chromosome DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin site and 21. Phenetic classification of organisms is based on 22. Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses? 23. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which can also symbiotic association with the water ferm Azolla is 24. Lichens are well known combination of an alga and a fungus where fungus has 25. Viruses that infect bacteria multiply and cause their lysis, are called 26. Ovulation in the human female normally takes
place during the menstrual cycle - 27. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily because of their 28. The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the Ph 29. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that 30. When a fresh-water protozoan possessing a contractile vacuole, is placed in a glass containing marrine water, the vacuol 31. In Arthropoda, hend and thorax are often used to form cephalothorax, but in which one of the following classes, is the b 32. Uricotelism is found in 33. One of the following is a very unique feature of the mammalian body 34. Edible part of mango is 35. Which one of the following enzymes, is copper necessarily associated as an activator? 36. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following 37. In which of the following pairs is the specific
characteristic of a soil not correctly matched ? 38. Restriction endonucleases :- 39. DNA fingerprinting refers to :- 40. ELISA is used to detect viruses, wherethe key reagent is :- 41. In transgenics expression of transgene in target
tissue is determined by :- 42. The Ti plasmid is often used for making
transgenic plants. This plasmid is found in 43. What is a keystone species ? 44. The maximum growth rate occurs in :- 45. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but
can recover after some time if damaging effect
stops will be having - 46. In which one of the following habitats does the
diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most ? 47. Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland
ecosystem ? 48. Certain characteristic demographic features of
developing countries are - 49. In your opinion, which is the most effective way
to conserve the plant diversity of an area ? 50. In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from
the tip upward, the four zones occur in the
following order :- 51. Mast cells of connective tissue contain - 52. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes
consist of short sequences of 53. In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the :- 54. A major component of gobar gas is 55. During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence
of the DNA strand that is being coded is
ATACG, then the nucleotide seq 56. Which of the following hormones is not a
secretion product of human placenta - 57. The recessive genes located on X-chromosomes
in humans are always- 58. A male human is heterozygous for autosomal
genes A and B and is also hemizygous for
hemophilic gene h. What proportion o 59. One of the parents of a cross has a mutation in
its mitochondria. In that cross, that parent is
taken as a male. During 60. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A
and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to :- 61. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow
fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over
shortness (t). If a plant 62. A normal woman, whose father was colour-blind
is married to a normal man. The sons would be :- 63. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced
by guanine, it is a case of - 64. Which one of the following is living fossil ? 65. Diversification in plant life appeared 66. Age of fossils in the past was generally
determined by radio-carbon method and other
methods involving radioactive eleme 67. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling
clover leaf ? 68. What kind of evidence suggested that man is
more closely related with chimpanzee than with
other hominoid apes ? 69. According to oparin, which one of the following
was not present in the primitive atmosphere of
the earth ? 70. After a mutation at a genetic locus the character
of an organism changes due to the change in :- 71. The following ratio is generally constant for a
given species :- 72. Which one of the following is not correctly
matched ? 73. Dough kept overnight in warm weather
becomes soft and spongy because of :- 74. The most thoroughly studied of the known
bacteria-plant interactions is the :- 75. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Chemistry
1. Which of the following coordination compounds would exhibit optical isomerism? 2. Among [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2$$-$$, [NiCl4]2$$-$$ species, the hybridisation states at the Ni atom are, respectively
[Atom 3. CN$$-$$ is a strong field ligand. This is due to the fact that 4. Which of the following is considered to be an anticancer species? 5. Considering H2O as a weak field ligand, the number of unpaired electrons in [Mn(H2O)6]2+ will be (atomic number of Mn = 6. The standard e.m.f. of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction with n = 2 is found to be 0.295 V at 25oC. The equilibriu 7. In a reaction of aniline a coloured product C was obtained.
The structure of C would be 8. Number of chiral carbons in $$\beta $$-$$D$$-(+) glucose is 9. The hormone that helps in the conversion of glucose to glycogen is 10. The helical structure of protein is stablised by 11. The correct statement in respect of protein haemoglobin is that it 12. A sequence of how many nucleotides in messenger RNA makes a codon for an amino acid? 13. Which of the following structures represents the peptide chain? 14. The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$2 mol L$$-$$1 min$$-$$1 at 0.5 M concentration of the reac 15. Which one of the following can be oxidised to the corresponding carbonyl compound? 16. Among K, Ca, Fe and Zn, the element which can from more than one binary compound with chlorine is 17. Which one of the following statements about the zeolite is false? 18. lanthanoids are 19. The radioactive isotope $${}_{27}^{60}$$Co which is used in the treatment of cancer can be made by (n.p) reaction. For t 20. Among the following series of transition metal ions, the one where all metal ions have 3d2 electronic configuration is
21. Which of the following does not have a metal carbon bond? 22. In an octahedral structure, the pair of $$d$$ orbitals involved in d2sp3 hybridisation is 23. Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamic parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of any process is 24. The frequency of radiation emitted when the electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in hydrogen atom will be (Given ionizatio 25. The maximum number of molecules is present in 26. Ionic radii are 27. In a regular octahedral molecule, MX6 the number of X $$-$$ M $$-$$ X bonds at 180o is 28. In BrF3 molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize 29. H2O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is because 30. Among the following, the pair in which the two species are not isostructural is 31. Standard enthalpy and standard entropy changes for the oxidation of ammonia at 298 K are $$-$$ 382.64 kJ mol$$-$$1 and $ 32. The work done during the expansion of a gas from a volume of 4 dm3 to 6 dm3 against a constant external pressure of 3 at 33. If the bond energies of H $$-$$ H, Br $$-$$ Br, and H $$-$$ Br are 433, 192 and 364 kJ mol$$-$$1 respectively, the $$\De 34. The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt AX2 is 3.2 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$11. Its solubility (in moles/L) is 35. The rapid change of pH near the stoichiometric point of an acid-base titration is the basis of indicator detection. pH o 36. Reaction of HBr with propene in the presence of peroxide gives 37. The $$-$$ OH group of an alcohol or the $$-$$ COOH group of a carboxylic acid can be replaced by $$-$$ Cl using 38. Using anhydrous AlCl3 as catalyst, which one of the following reactions produces ethylbenzene (PhEt)? 39. The molecular formula of diphenyl methane,
How many structural isomers are possible when one of the hydrogen is replace 40. Which of the following is least reactive in a nucleophilic sibstitution reaction? 41. Which one of the following will not form a yellow precipitate on heating with an alkaline solution of iodine? 42. Which is the best description of the behaviour of bromine in the reaction given below?
H2O + Br2 $$ \to $$ HOBr + HBr
Physics
1. A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm diameter and is situated at a distance of one kilometer from two objects. The 2. Five equal resistances each of resistances R are connected as shown in the figure. A battery of V volts is connected bet 3. To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter one should connect a 4. In India electricity is supplied for domestic use at 220 V. It is supplied at 110 V in USA. If the resistance of a 60 W 5. A 6 volt battery is connected to the terminals of a three metre long wire of uniform thickness and resistance of 100 oh 6. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both doubled, then 7. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25 divisions. A current of 4 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$4 ampere gives a deflection of 8. Resistance n, each of r ohm, when connected in parallel give an equivalent resistance of R ohm. If these resistances we 9. when three identical bulbs of 60 watt, 200 volt rating are connected in series to a 200 volt supply, the power drawn by 10. A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the combination is joined to the ter 11. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount $$\Delta $$$$\phi $$ in a time $$\Delta $$t. Th 12. The refractive index of the material of a prism is $$\sqrt 2 $$ and its refracting angle is 30o. One of the refracting s 13. The phase difference between two waves. represented by
y1 = 10$$-$$6 sin[100t + (x/50) + 0.5] m
y2 = 10$$-$$6 cos[100t + 14. A beam of light composed of red and green ray is incident obliquely at a point on the face of rectangular glass slab. Wh 15. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected and the f 16. The Bohr model of atoms 17. Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams, which one is reverse biased ? 18. If M(A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus $${}_Z^AX,$$ proton and neutron respectively in units of u (1 u = 19. The peak voltage in the output of a half wave diode rectifier fed with a sinusoidal signal without filter is 10 V. The d 20. If in a nuclear fusion process the masses of the fusing nuclei be m1 and m2 and the mass of the resultant nucleus be m3, 21. The output of OR gate is 1 22. Three particles, each of mass m gram, are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side $$l$$ cm (as s 23. The unit of permittyvity of free space, $${\varepsilon _0}$$, is 24. If $$\left| {\overrightarrow A \times \overrightarrow B } \right| = \sqrt 3 \overrightarrow A .\overrightarrow B $$ the 25. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of inclination $$\theta $$. The whole system is accelerated horizontally s 26. The coefficient of static friction, $$\mu $$s, between block A of mass 2 kg and the table as shown in the figure is 0.2. 27. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc about a tangential axis in the plane of the disc and of a circular 28. A round disc of moment of inertia $$I$$2 about its axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre is pl 29. A ball of mass 2 kg and another of mass 4 kg are dropped together from a 60 feet ball building. After a fall of 30 feet 30. Consider a system of two particles having masses m1 and m2. If the particle of mass m1 is pushed towards the mass centre 31. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly weightless spring o 32. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity v1 and another particle of mass m2 is moving with a velocity v2. Both 33. In semiconductors at a room temperature 34. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg m2 about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm about this axis. The tor 35. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of earth. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the p 36. If $$\lambda $$m denotes the wavelength at which the radioactive amission from a black body at a temperature TK is max 37. Two springs of spring constants k1 and k2 are joined in series. The effective spring constant of the combination is give 38. The equation of state for 5 g of oxygen at a pressure P and temperature T, when occupying a volume V, will be
(where R 39. A particle executing simple harmonic motion of amplitude 5 cm has maximum speed of 31.4 cm/s. The frequency of its oscil 40. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of T K does 6R joule of work adiabatically. If the ratio of specific 41. An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q and its dipole moment is p. It is placed in a uniform electric f 42. A bullet of mass 2 g is having a charge of 2 $$\mu $$C. Through what potential difference must it be accelerated, starti 43. The dimensions of universal gravitational constant are
1
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but
can recover after some time if damaging effect
stops will be having -
A
High stability and high resilience
B
Low stability and high resilience
C
High stability and low resilience
D
Low stability and low resilience
2
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
In which one of the following habitats does the
diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most ?
A
Grassland
B
Desert
C
Shrub land
D
Forest
3
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland
ecosystem ?
A
Net production (NP)
B
Secondary production
C
Tertiary production
D
Gross production (GP)
4
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Certain characteristic demographic features of
developing countries are -
A
High fertility, low or rapidly falling mortality
rate, rapid population growth and a very
young age distribution
B
High mortality high density, uneven
population growth and a very old age
distribution
C
High fertility, high density, rapidly rising
mortality rate and very young age distribution
D
High infant mortality, low fertility, uneven
population growth and a very young age
distribution
Paper Analysis
Total Questions
Biology 75
Chemistry 42
Physics 43
More Papers of NEET
NEET 2026 NEET 2025 NEET 2024 (Re-Examination) NEET 2024 NEET 2023 Manipur NEET 2023 NEET 2022 Phase 2 NEET 2022 Phase 1 NEET 2021 NEET 2020 Phase 1 NEET 2019 NEET 2018 NEET 2017 NEET 2016 Phase 2 NEET 2016 Phase 1 AIPMT 2015 AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper AIPMT 2014 NEET 2013 (Karnataka) NEET 2013 AIPMT 2012 Mains AIPMT 2012 Prelims AIPMT 2011 Mains AIPMT 2011 Prelims AIPMT 2010 Mains AIPMT 2010 Prelims AIPMT 2009 AIPMT 2008 AIPMT 2007 AIPMT 2006 AIPMT 2005 AIPMT 2004 AIPMT 2003 AIPMT 2002 AIPMT 2001 AIPMT 2000
NEET Papers
All year-wise previous year question papers
2014
2009
2008
2007
2006
2005
2004
2003
2002
2001
2000