Biology
1. When CO2 concentration in blood increases breathing becomes 2. Plants adapted to low light intensity have 3. In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during the dark reaction is 4. In the somatic cell cycle 5. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by 6. One set of the plant was grown at 12 hours day and 12 hours night period cycles and it flowered while in the other set n 7. Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants takes place due to 8. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content. Which of the following con 9. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following 10. You are required to draw blood from a patient and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of blood corpuscles and plasma. 11. In the resting state of the neural membrane, diffusion due to concentration gradients, if allowed, would drive 12. Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect 13. Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency? 14. Which one of the following hormones is modified amino acid? 15. Chemically hormones are 16. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to 17. An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to the funicle is 18. When a diploid female plant is crossed with a tetraploid male, the ploidy of endosperm cells in the resulting seed is 19. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily because of their 20. Lichens are well known combination of an alga and a fungus where fungus has 21. Phenetic classification of organisms is based on 22. Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses? 23. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which can also symbiotic association with the water ferm Azolla is 24. Viruses that infect bacteria multiply and cause their lysis, are called 25. During replication of a bacterial chromosome DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin site and 26. Which of the following hormones is not a
secretion product of human placenta - 27. Diversification in plant life appeared 28. The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the Ph 29. In Arthropoda, hend and thorax are often used to form cephalothorax, but in which one of the following classes, is the b 30. When a fresh-water protozoan possessing a contractile vacuole, is placed in a glass containing marrine water, the vacuol 31. Uricotelism is found in 32. One of the following is a very unique feature of the mammalian body 33. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that 34. Which one of the following enzymes, is copper necessarily associated as an activator? 35. Edible part of mango is 36. Which one of the following precedes reformation of the nuclear envelope during M phase of the cell cycle? 37. In which of the following pairs is the specific
characteristic of a soil not correctly matched ? 38. The most thoroughly studied of the known
bacteria-plant interactions is the :- 39. Restriction endonucleases :- 40. In transgenics expression of transgene in target
tissue is determined by :- 41. ELISA is used to detect viruses, wherethe key reagent is :- 42. DNA fingerprinting refers to :- 43. The Ti plasmid is often used for making
transgenic plants. This plasmid is found in 44. What is a keystone species ? 45. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but
can recover after some time if damaging effect
stops will be having - 46. Certain characteristic demographic features of
developing countries are - 47. In which one of the following habitats does the
diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most ? 48. Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland
ecosystem ? 49. In your opinion, which is the most effective way
to conserve the plant diversity of an area ? 50. The maximum growth rate occurs in :- 51. In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from
the tip upward, the four zones occur in the
following order :- 52. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes
consist of short sequences of 53. Mast cells of connective tissue contain - 54. In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the :- 55. A major component of gobar gas is 56. What kind of evidence suggested that man is
more closely related with chimpanzee than with
other hominoid apes ? 57. Ovulation in the human female normally takes
place during the menstrual cycle - 58. The recessive genes located on X-chromosomes
in humans are always- 59. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A
and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to :- 60. A male human is heterozygous for autosomal
genes A and B and is also hemizygous for
hemophilic gene h. What proportion o 61. One of the parents of a cross has a mutation in
its mitochondria. In that cross, that parent is
taken as a male. During 62. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow
fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over
shortness (t). If a plant 63. A normal woman, whose father was colour-blind
is married to a normal man. The sons would be :- 64. Which one of the following is living fossil ? 65. Diversification in plant life appeared 66. Age of fossils in the past was generally
determined by radio-carbon method and other
methods involving radioactive eleme 67. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced
by guanine, it is a case of - 68. According to oparin, which one of the following
was not present in the primitive atmosphere of
the earth ? 69. During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence
of the DNA strand that is being coded is
ATACG, then the nucleotide seq 70. After a mutation at a genetic locus the character
of an organism changes due to the change in :- 71. The following ratio is generally constant for a
given species :- 72. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling
clover leaf ? 73. Dough kept overnight in warm weather
becomes soft and spongy because of :- 74. Which one of the following is not correctly
matched ? 75. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Chemistry
1. Considering H2O as a weak field ligand, the number of unpaired electrons in [Mn(H2O)6]2+ will be (atomic number of Mn = 2. In an octahedral structure, the pair of $$d$$ orbitals involved in d2sp3 hybridisation is 3. Which of the following coordination compounds would exhibit optical isomerism? 4. CN$$-$$ is a strong field ligand. This is due to the fact that 5. Among [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2$$-$$, [NiCl4]2$$-$$ species, the hybridisation states at the Ni atom are, respectively
[Atom 6. The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$2 mol L$$-$$1 min$$-$$1 at 0.5 M concentration of the reac 7. The correct statement in respect of protein haemoglobin is that it 8. Number of chiral carbons in $$\beta $$-$$D$$-(+) glucose is 9. In a reaction of aniline a coloured product C was obtained.
The structure of C would be 10. The hormone that helps in the conversion of glucose to glycogen is 11. The helical structure of protein is stablised by 12. A sequence of how many nucleotides in messenger RNA makes a codon for an amino acid? 13. Which of the following structures represents the peptide chain? 14. The standard e.m.f. of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction with n = 2 is found to be 0.295 V at 25oC. The equilibriu 15. Which one of the following can be oxidised to the corresponding carbonyl compound? 16. Which one of the following statements about the zeolite is false? 17. Among K, Ca, Fe and Zn, the element which can from more than one binary compound with chlorine is 18. lanthanoids are 19. The radioactive isotope $${}_{27}^{60}$$Co which is used in the treatment of cancer can be made by (n.p) reaction. For t 20. Among the following series of transition metal ions, the one where all metal ions have 3d2 electronic configuration is
21. Which of the following is considered to be an anticancer species? 22. Which of the following does not have a metal carbon bond? 23. The work done during the expansion of a gas from a volume of 4 dm3 to 6 dm3 against a constant external pressure of 3 at 24. The maximum number of molecules is present in 25. The frequency of radiation emitted when the electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in hydrogen atom will be (Given ionizatio 26. In BrF3 molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize 27. Among the following, the pair in which the two species are not isostructural is 28. In a regular octahedral molecule, MX6 the number of X $$-$$ M $$-$$ X bonds at 180o is 29. H2O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is because 30. Ionic radii are 31. If the bond energies of H $$-$$ H, Br $$-$$ Br, and H $$-$$ Br are 433, 192 and 364 kJ mol$$-$$1 respectively, the $$\De 32. Standard enthalpy and standard entropy changes for the oxidation of ammonia at 298 K are $$-$$ 382.64 kJ mol$$-$$1 and $ 33. Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamic parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of any process is 34. The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt AX2 is 3.2 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$11. Its solubility (in moles/L) is 35. The rapid change of pH near the stoichiometric point of an acid-base titration is the basis of indicator detection. pH o 36. The $$-$$ OH group of an alcohol or the $$-$$ COOH group of a carboxylic acid can be replaced by $$-$$ Cl using 37. Using anhydrous AlCl3 as catalyst, which one of the following reactions produces ethylbenzene (PhEt)? 38. Reaction of HBr with propene in the presence of peroxide gives 39. The molecular formula of diphenyl methane,
How many structural isomers are possible when one of the hydrogen is replace 40. Which one of the following will not form a yellow precipitate on heating with an alkaline solution of iodine? 41. Which of the following is least reactive in a nucleophilic sibstitution reaction? 42. Which is the best description of the behaviour of bromine in the reaction given below?
H2O + Br2 $$ \to $$ HOBr + HBr
Physics
1. The refractive index of the material of a prism is $$\sqrt 2 $$ and its refracting angle is 30o. One of the refracting s 2. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both doubled, then 3. A 6 volt battery is connected to the terminals of a three metre long wire of uniform thickness and resistance of 100 oh 4. To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter one should connect a 5. The phase difference between two waves. represented by
y1 = 10$$-$$6 sin[100t + (x/50) + 0.5] m
y2 = 10$$-$$6 cos[100t + 6. An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q and its dipole moment is p. It is placed in a uniform electric f 7. when three identical bulbs of 60 watt, 200 volt rating are connected in series to a 200 volt supply, the power drawn by 8. Resistance n, each of r ohm, when connected in parallel give an equivalent resistance of R ohm. If these resistances we 9. A bullet of mass 2 g is having a charge of 2 $$\mu $$C. Through what potential difference must it be accelerated, starti 10. A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the combination is joined to the ter 11. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount $$\Delta $$$$\phi $$ in a time $$\Delta $$t. Th 12. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected and the f 13. In India electricity is supplied for domestic use at 220 V. It is supplied at 110 V in USA. If the resistance of a 60 W 14. A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm diameter and is situated at a distance of one kilometer from two objects. The 15. A beam of light composed of red and green ray is incident obliquely at a point on the face of rectangular glass slab. Wh 16. The Bohr model of atoms 17. If in a nuclear fusion process the masses of the fusing nuclei be m1 and m2 and the mass of the resultant nucleus be m3, 18. Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams, which one is reverse biased ? 19. If M(A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus $${}_Z^AX,$$ proton and neutron respectively in units of u (1 u = 20. The peak voltage in the output of a half wave diode rectifier fed with a sinusoidal signal without filter is 10 V. The d 21. The output of OR gate is 1 22. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly weightless spring o 23. The unit of permittyvity of free space, $${\varepsilon _0}$$, is 24. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of inclination $$\theta $$. The whole system is accelerated horizontally s 25. If $$\left| {\overrightarrow A \times \overrightarrow B } \right| = \sqrt 3 \overrightarrow A .\overrightarrow B $$ the 26. The coefficient of static friction, $$\mu $$s, between block A of mass 2 kg and the table as shown in the figure is 0.2. 27. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc about a tangential axis in the plane of the disc and of a circular 28. A ball of mass 2 kg and another of mass 4 kg are dropped together from a 60 feet ball building. After a fall of 30 feet 29. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg m2 about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm about this axis. The tor 30. Three particles, each of mass m gram, are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side $$l$$ cm (as s 31. A round disc of moment of inertia $$I$$2 about its axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre is pl 32. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity v1 and another particle of mass m2 is moving with a velocity v2. Both 33. In semiconductors at a room temperature 34. Consider a system of two particles having masses m1 and m2. If the particle of mass m1 is pushed towards the mass centre 35. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of earth. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the p 36. If $$\lambda $$m denotes the wavelength at which the radioactive amission from a black body at a temperature TK is max 37. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of T K does 6R joule of work adiabatically. If the ratio of specific 38. The equation of state for 5 g of oxygen at a pressure P and temperature T, when occupying a volume V, will be
(where R 39. Two springs of spring constants k1 and k2 are joined in series. The effective spring constant of the combination is give 40. A particle executing simple harmonic motion of amplitude 5 cm has maximum speed of 31.4 cm/s. The frequency of its oscil 41. Five equal resistances each of resistances R are connected as shown in the figure. A battery of V volts is connected bet 42. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25 divisions. A current of 4 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$4 ampere gives a deflection of 43. The dimensions of universal gravitational constant are
1
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity v1 and another particle of mass m2 is moving with a velocity v2. Both of them have the same momentum but their different kinetic energies are E1 and E2 respectively. If m1 > m2 then :
A
E1 < E2
B
$${{{E_1}} \over {{E_2}}} = {{{m_1}} \over {{m_2}}}$$
C
E1 > E2
D
E1 = E2
2
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
In semiconductors at a room temperature
A
the valence band is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled
B
the valence band is completely filled and the conduction band is partially filled
C
the valence band is completely filled
D
the conduction band is completely empty
3
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Consider a system of two particles having masses m1 and m2. If the particle of mass m1 is pushed towards the mass centre of particles through a distance d. by what distance would be particle of mass m2 move so as to keep the mass centre of particles at the original position?
A
$${{{m_1}} \over {{m_1} + m{}_2}}$$d
B
$${{{m_1}} \over {{m_2}}}$$d
C
d
D
$${{{m_2}} \over {{m_1}}}$$d
4
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of earth. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the planet is equal to that at the surface of the earth. If the radius of the earth is R, the radius of the planet would be
A
2R
B
4R
C
$${1 \over 4}$$R
D
$${1 \over 2}$$R
Paper Analysis
Total Questions
Biology 75
Chemistry 42
Physics 43
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