Biology
1. Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses? 2. Viruses that infect bacteria multiply and cause their lysis, are called 3. Phenetic classification of organisms is based on 4. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium which can also symbiotic association with the water ferm Azolla is 5. During replication of a bacterial chromosome DNA synthesis starts from a replication origin site and 6. Lichens are well known combination of an alga and a fungus where fungus has 7. Diversification in plant life appeared 8. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily because of their 9. In Arthropoda, hend and thorax are often used to form cephalothorax, but in which one of the following classes, is the b 10. The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage, belong to the Ph 11. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that 12. Uricotelism is found in 13. When a fresh-water protozoan possessing a contractile vacuole, is placed in a glass containing marrine water, the vacuol 14. One of the following is a very unique feature of the mammalian body 15. Edible part of mango is 16. Which one of the following enzymes, is copper necessarily associated as an activator? 17. In the somatic cell cycle 18. Which one of the following precedes reformation of the nuclear envelope during M phase of the cell cycle? 19. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes, which of the following 20. If by radiation all nitrogenase enzyme are inactivated, then there will be no 21. In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during the dark reaction is 22. Plants adapted to low light intensity have 23. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by 24. Cell elongation in internodal regions of the green plants takes place due to 25. One set of the plant was grown at 12 hours day and 12 hours night period cycles and it flowered while in the other set n 26. The richest sources of vitamin B12 are 27. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? 28. Duodenum has characteristics Brunner's gland which secrete two hormones called 29. Blood analysis of a patient reveals an unusually high quantity of carboxyhaemoglobin content. Which of the following con 30. When CO2 concentration in blood increases breathing becomes 31. You are required to draw blood from a patient and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of blood corpuscles and plasma. 32. In the resting state of the neural membrane, diffusion due to concentration gradients, if allowed, would drive 33. Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect 34. Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency? 35. Which one of the following hormones is modified amino acid? 36. Chemically hormones are 37. In oogamy, fertilization involves 38. Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to 39. When a diploid female plant is crossed with a tetraploid male, the ploidy of endosperm cells in the resulting seed is 40. An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to the funicle is 41. Which of the following hormones is not a
secretion product of human placenta - 42. Ovulation in the human female normally takes
place during the menstrual cycle - 43. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow
fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over
shortness (t). If a plant 44. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A
and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to :- 45. A male human is heterozygous for autosomal
genes A and B and is also hemizygous for
hemophilic gene h. What proportion o 46. One of the parents of a cross has a mutation in
its mitochondria. In that cross, that parent is
taken as a male. During 47. A normal woman, whose father was colour-blind
is married to a normal man. The sons would be :- 48. The recessive genes located on X-chromosomes
in humans are always- 49. During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence
of the DNA strand that is being coded is
ATACG, then the nucleotide seq 50. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling
clover leaf ? 51. After a mutation at a genetic locus the character
of an organism changes due to the change in :- 52. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced
by guanine, it is a case of - 53. The following ratio is generally constant for a
given species :- 54. Age of fossils in the past was generally
determined by radio-carbon method and other
methods involving radioactive eleme 55. What kind of evidence suggested that man is
more closely related with chimpanzee than with
other hominoid apes ? 56. Which one of the following is living fossil ? 57. Diversification in plant life appeared 58. According to oparin, which one of the following
was not present in the primitive atmosphere of
the earth ? 59. Which one of the following is not correctly
matched ? 60. The technique of obtaining large number of plantlets by tissue culture method is called – 61. India's wheat yield revolution in the 1960s was
possible primarily due to :- 62. Dough kept overnight in warm weather
becomes soft and spongy because of :- 63. The most thoroughly studied of the known
bacteria-plant interactions is the :- 64. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? 65. Restriction endonucleases :- 66. In transgenics expression of transgene in target
tissue is determined by :- 67. DNA fingerprinting refers to :- 68. ELISA is used to detect viruses, wherethe key reagent is :- 69. The Ti plasmid is often used for making
transgenic plants. This plasmid is found in 70. Certain characteristic demographic features of
developing countries are - 71. What is a keystone species ? 72. The maximum growth rate occurs in :- 73. In which of the following pairs is the specific
characteristic of a soil not correctly matched ? 74. In which one of the following habitats does the
diurnal temperature of soil surface vary most ? 75. Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland
ecosystem ? 76. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but
can recover after some time if damaging effect
stops will be having - 77. In your opinion, which is the most effective way
to conserve the plant diversity of an area ? 78. In 1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy took place
because methyl isocyanate :- 79. Lead concentration in blood is considered
alarming if it is - 80. Common indicator organism of water pollution
is :- 81. In a longitudinal section of a root, starting from
the tip upward, the four zones occur in the
following order :- 82. Mast cells of connective tissue contain - 83. In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the :- 84. The telomeres of eukaryotic chromosomes
consist of short sequences of 85. A major component of gobar gas is
Chemistry
1. The maximum number of molecules is present in 2. The frequency of radiation emitted when the electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in hydrogen atom will be (Given ionizatio 3. Ionic radii are 4. In a regular octahedral molecule, MX6 the number of X $$-$$ M $$-$$ X bonds at 180o is 5. Among the following, the pair in which the two species are not isostructural is 6. H2O is dipolar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is because 7. In BrF3 molecule, the lone pairs occupy equatorial positions to minimize 8. If the bond energies of H $$-$$ H, Br $$-$$ Br, and H $$-$$ Br are 433, 192 and 364 kJ mol$$-$$1 respectively, the $$\De 9. Standard enthalpy and standard entropy changes for the oxidation of ammonia at 298 K are $$-$$ 382.64 kJ mol$$-$$1 and $ 10. Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamic parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of any process is 11. The work done during the expansion of a gas from a volume of 4 dm3 to 6 dm3 against a constant external pressure of 3 at 12. The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt AX2 is 3.2 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$11. Its solubility (in moles/L) is 13. The rapid change of pH near the stoichiometric point of an acid-base titration is the basis of indicator detection. pH o 14. The molecular formula of diphenyl methane,
How many structural isomers are possible when one of the hydrogen is replace 15. The $$-$$ OH group of an alcohol or the $$-$$ COOH group of a carboxylic acid can be replaced by $$-$$ Cl using 16. Using anhydrous AlCl3 as catalyst, which one of the following reactions produces ethylbenzene (PhEt)? 17. Reaction of HBr with propene in the presence of peroxide gives 18. Which of the following is least reactive in a nucleophilic sibstitution reaction? 19. Which one of the following will not form a yellow precipitate on heating with an alkaline solution of iodine? 20. Which is the best description of the behaviour of bromine in the reaction given below?
H2O + Br2 $$ \to $$ HOBr + HBr 21. A solid compound X on heating gives CO2 gas and a residue. The residue mixed with water forms Y. On passing an excess of 22. Which one of the following can be oxidised to the corresponding carbonyl compound? 23. In a reaction of aniline a coloured product C was obtained.
The structure of C would be 24. The correct statement in respect of protein haemoglobin is that it 25. Number of chiral carbons in $$\beta $$-$$D$$-(+) glucose is 26. A sequence of how many nucleotides in messenger RNA makes a codon for an amino acid? 27. The hormone that helps in the conversion of glucose to glycogen is 28. The helical structure of protein is stablised by 29. Which of the following structures represents the peptide chain? 30. Which one of the following is a chain growth polymer? 31. A compound formed by elements X and Y
crystallizes in a cubic structure in which the X
atoms are at the corners of a cub 32. The standard e.m.f. of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction with n = 2 is found to be 0.295 V at 25oC. The equilibriu 33. The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$2 mol L$$-$$1 min$$-$$1 at 0.5 M concentration of the reac 34. The enzyme which hydrolyses triglycerides to fatty acids and glycerol is called 35. Which one of the following statements about the zeolite is false? 36. Among K, Ca, Fe and Zn, the element which can from more than one binary compound with chlorine is 37. lanthanoids are 38. Among the following series of transition metal ions, the one where all metal ions have 3d2 electronic configuration is
39. Which of the following forms cationic micelles above certain concentration? 40. Chloropicrin is obtained by the reaction of 41. The radioactive isotope $${}_{27}^{60}$$Co which is used in the treatment of cancer can be made by (n.p) reaction. For t 42. Considering H2O as a weak field ligand, the number of unpaired electrons in [Mn(H2O)6]2+ will be (atomic number of Mn = 43. Which of the following coordination compounds would exhibit optical isomerism? 44. Among [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2$$-$$, [NiCl4]2$$-$$ species, the hybridisation states at the Ni atom are, respectively
[Atom 45. CN$$-$$ is a strong field ligand. This is due to the fact that 46. In an octahedral structure, the pair of $$d$$ orbitals involved in d2sp3 hybridisation is 47. Which of the following does not have a metal carbon bond? 48. Which of the following is considered to be an anticancer species?
Physics
1. The dimensions of universal gravitational constant are 2. The unit of permittyvity of free space, $${\varepsilon _0}$$, is 3. If $$\left| {\overrightarrow A \times \overrightarrow B } \right| = \sqrt 3 \overrightarrow A .\overrightarrow B $$ the 4. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth wedge of inclination $$\theta $$. The whole system is accelerated horizontally s 5. The coefficient of static friction, $$\mu $$s, between block A of mass 2 kg and the table as shown in the figure is 0.2. 6. A ball of mass 2 kg and another of mass 4 kg are dropped together from a 60 feet ball building. After a fall of 30 feet 7. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity v1 and another particle of mass m2 is moving with a velocity v2. Both 8. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 m/s on horizontal smooth surface, collides with a nearly weightless spring o 9. Three particles, each of mass m gram, are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side $$l$$ cm (as s 10. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg m2 about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm about this axis. The tor 11. Consider a system of two particles having masses m1 and m2. If the particle of mass m1 is pushed towards the mass centre 12. A round disc of moment of inertia $$I$$2 about its axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre is pl 13. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc about a tangential axis in the plane of the disc and of a circular 14. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of earth. The acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the p 15. If $$\lambda $$m denotes the wavelength at which the radioactive amission from a black body at a temperature TK is max 16. The equation of state for 5 g of oxygen at a pressure P and temperature T, when occupying a volume V, will be
(where R 17. One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of T K does 6R joule of work adiabatically. If the ratio of specific 18. Two springs of spring constants k1 and k2 are joined in series. The effective spring constant of the combination is give 19. A particle executing simple harmonic motion of amplitude 5 cm has maximum speed of 31.4 cm/s. The frequency of its oscil 20. A car is moving towards a high cliff. The driver sounds a horn of frequency $$f$$. The reflected sound heard by the dri 21. The phase difference between two waves. represented by
y1 = 10$$-$$6 sin[100t + (x/50) + 0.5] m
y2 = 10$$-$$6 cos[100t + 22. A bullet of mass 2 g is having a charge of 2 $$\mu $$C. Through what potential difference must it be accelerated, starti 23. An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q and its dipole moment is p. It is placed in a uniform electric f 24. Five equal resistances each of resistances R are connected as shown in the figure. A battery of V volts is connected bet 25. when three identical bulbs of 60 watt, 200 volt rating are connected in series to a 200 volt supply, the power drawn by 26. A 6 volt battery is connected to the terminals of a three metre long wire of uniform thickness and resistance of 100 oh 27. In India electricity is supplied for domestic use at 220 V. It is supplied at 110 V in USA. If the resistance of a 60 W 28. Resistance n, each of r ohm, when connected in parallel give an equivalent resistance of R ohm. If these resistances we 29. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both doubled, then 30. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25 divisions. A current of 4 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$4 ampere gives a deflection of 31. To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter one should connect a 32. A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8 ohm and the combination is joined to the ter 33. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount $$\Delta $$$$\phi $$ in a time $$\Delta $$t. Th 34. A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm diameter and is situated at a distance of one kilometer from two objects. The 35. The refractive index of the material of a prism is $$\sqrt 2 $$ and its refracting angle is 30o. One of the refracting s 36. A beam of light composed of red and green ray is incident obliquely at a point on the face of rectangular glass slab. Wh 37. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected and the f 38. If M(A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus $${}_Z^AX,$$ proton and neutron respectively in units of u (1 u = 39. A nucleus represented by the symbol $${}_Z^AX$$ has 40. The Bohr model of atoms 41. If in a nuclear fusion process the masses of the fusing nuclei be m1 and m2 and the mass of the resultant nucleus be m3, 42. The half life of radian is about 1600 years. Of 100 g of radium existing now, 25 g will remain unchanged after 43. In semiconductors at a room temperature 44. The peak voltage in the output of a half wave diode rectifier fed with a sinusoidal signal without filter is 10 V. The d 45. The output of OR gate is 1 46. Of the diodes shown in the following diagrams, which one is reverse biased ?
1
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which one of the following is not correctly
matched ?
A
Anopheles culifaciens – Leishmaniasis
B
Glossina palpalis – Sleeping sickness
C
Culex pipiens – Filariasis
D
Aedes aegypti – Yellow fever
2
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Out of Syllabus
The technique of obtaining large number of plantlets by tissue culture method is called –
A
Macropropagation
B
Organ culture
C
Plantlet culture
D
Micropropagation
3
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Out of Syllabus
India's wheat yield revolution in the 1960s was
possible primarily due to :-
A
Hybrid seeds
B
Quantitative trait mutations
C
Increased chlorophyll content
D
Mutations resulting in plant height reduction
4
AIPMT 2004
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Dough kept overnight in warm weather
becomes soft and spongy because of :-
A
Cohesion
B
Absorption of carbon dioxide from
atmosphere
C
Osmosis
D
Fermentation
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
85
Chemistry
48
Physics
46
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