Biology
1. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries, are : 2. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development, gynaecomastia,
and is sterile? 3. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps? 4. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the
frequency of homo 5. Select the incorrect statement. 6. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are: 7. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to : 8. Match the following genes of the Lac operon with their respective produces :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spac 9. The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosome are referred to as: 10. Which of the following features of genetic code does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by
recombinant DNA technolo 11. Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of following mRNA?
5' AACAGCGGUGCUA 12. The concept of ''Omnis cellula-e cellula'' regarding cell division was first proposed by : 13. The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of the distance
between genes was 14. Match the hominids with their correct brain size :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-styl 15. Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for
typhoid. 16. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average weight
between 3 to 3.3 kg 17. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to
impart immu 18. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is not completely curable ? 19. Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft? 20. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by : 21. What triggers activation of protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll worm? 22. Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in flowering plants is
incorrect? 23. Which of the following factors is responsible for the formation of concentrated urine? 24. Select the correct option : 25. What would be the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end
of diast 26. Use of an artificial kindney during hemodialysis may result in :
(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body
(b) Non –eli 27. Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation? 28. Which of the following muscular disorders is inherited? 29. Which of the following statements in correct? 30. Match the following hormones with the respective disease :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{bor 31. How does steroid hormone influence the cellular activities? 32. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 33. In some plants, the female gamete develops into embryo without fertilization. This phenomenon is known as : 34. Pinus seed cannot germinate and establish without fungal association. This is because : 35. Placentation, in which ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is : 36. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as 37. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs : 38. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid? 39. Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone? 40. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells in male reproductive system : 41. Select the horomone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices. 42. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower was crossed with a white flower and in F1 generation, pink
flowers were obtain 43. Which of the following is the most important cause for animals and plants being driven to extinction? 44. Select the correct group of biocontrol agents. 45. Match the following organisms with the products they produce :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td 46. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful in carrying out : 47. Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant disease? 48. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of bimolecules can be achieved by treatment with : 49. Which of the following is a commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent? 50. Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonuclease. Identify the
incorrect stateme 51. Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin-dependent? 52. The Earth summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called : 53. Match Column-I with Column –II.
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-style:solid;border-widt 54. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin is : 55. Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted? 56. Which one of the following is not a method of in situ conservation of biodiversity? 57. Concanavalin A is : 58. From evolutionary point of view, retention of the female gametophyte with developing young embryo on the
parent sporophy 59. Grass leaves curl inward during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason from the following : 60. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks : 61. Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics:
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
62. What is the direction of movement of sugars in phloem? 63. Which of the statements given below is not true about formation of Annual Rings in trees? 64. Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth : 65. Which of the following pair of organelles does not contains DNA? 66. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is : 67. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondria is incorrect? 68. Select the correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus : 69. Consider the following statements :
(A) Coenzyme of metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthet 70. Cells in G0 phase : 71. What is the site of perception of photoperiod necessary for induction of flowering in plants? 72. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, these
cells ar 73. Which of the following statements is not correct? 74. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6 phosphate, the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is catalyzed by 75. Match the Column-I with Column-II :
Select the correct option. 76. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL respectively. What will
be his Expiratory 77. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 78. Consider following features:
(a) Organ system level of organisation
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) True coelomates with segm
Chemistry
1. Identify the incorrect statement related to PCl5 from the following : 2. An alkene “A” on reaction with O3 and Zn + H2O gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio. Addition
of HCl to alkene 3. Which is the correct thermal stability order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)? 4. For a cell involving one electron $$E_{cell}^\Theta $$ = 0.59 V at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell reaction 5. For an ideal solution, the correct option is : 6. For the cell reaction
2Fe3+(aq) + 2I–
(aq) $$ \to $$ 2Fe2+(aq) + I2(aq)
$${E_{cell}^\Theta }$$ = 0.24 V at 298 K. The st 7. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for the completion of 99 % of the
reaction i 8. For the chemical reaction
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
the correct option is : 9. The most suitable reagent for the following conversion, is :
10. Match the following :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-style:solid;border-width:0px;font 11. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its structure in Column-II and assign the correct code :
12. The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is : 13. What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on crystal field theory? 14. The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction, is :
15. The major product of the following reaction is :
16. The non-essential amino acid among the following is : 17. The mixture that forms maximum boiling
azeotrope is : 18. The compound that is most difficult to protonate is : 19. Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is : 20. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through Haber’s
process is : 21. Conjugate base for Bronsted acids H2O and HF are : 22. Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in visible region? 23. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is : 24. For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionization enthalpy is : 25. The number of sigma ($$\sigma $$) and pi ($$\pi $$) bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne is -
26. The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral due to : 27. The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is : 28. Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only $$\pi $$ bonds according to Molecular Orbital Theory?
29. In which case change in entropy is negative? 30. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant external pressure
of 2 bar. T 31. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is : 32. Which will make basic buffer? 33. Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reaction?
(a) 2Cu+ $$ \to $$ Cu2+
+ Cu0
(b) 3MnO42+ + 4H+ $$ \t 34. Which of the following is incorrect statement? 35. Which of the following species is not stable?
Physics
1. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 present near the bottom of a fully filled open tank of height 2 m. Taking g 2. Ionized hydrogen atoms and $$\alpha $$-particles with same momenta enters perpendicular to a constant magnetic field, B. 3. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long wire of length L, the length of the wire becomes (L + $$l$$). The elastic 4. The work done to raise a mass m from the surface of the earth to a height h, which is equal to the radius of the earth, 5. In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair of media in contact 6. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true? 7. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and – Q respectively, are placed at certain distance apart and force acting 8. $$\alpha $$-particale consists of : 9. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u collides with another body B of mass 2 m, at rest. The collision is head on and el 10. A body weight 200 N on the surface of earth. How much will it weight half way down to the centre of the earth? 11. Pick the wrong answer in the context with rainbow. 12. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed of 20 cm/s. How much work 13. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA and rB with speed vA and v 14. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 $$\mu $$F is being charged by a voltage source whose potential is changing 15. When an object is shot from the bottom of a long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60o with horizontal, it can trav 16. The unit of thermal conductivity is : 17. The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are, respectively. 18. Which of the following acts as a circuit protection device? 19. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown from a detergent solution having a surface tension of 2.5 $$ \times $$ 10 20. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal length f each, are kept coaxially in contact with each other such that the 21. In which of the following devices, the eddy current effect is not used? 22. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear charge densities +$$\lambda $$ C/m and -$$\lambda $$ C/m are placed at a 23. A particle moving with velocity
$$\overrightarrow V $$ is acted by three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR. The v 24. The radius of circle, the period of revolution, initial position and sense of revolution are indicated is the figure.
25. A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a particle in y-direction where F is in newton and y in meter. Work done by this force to m 26. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from the ce 27. At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle of dip, $$\delta $$ = + 25o. At a point B on the earth's surface the angle 28. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf E, and zero internal resistance.
The ra 29. In which of the following processes, heat is neither absorbed nor released by a system? 30. In a double slit experiment, when light of wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width of the first minima formed on a 31. A cylinderical conductor of radius R is carrying a constant current. The plot of the magnitude of the magnetic field. B 32. In the circuits shown below, the readings of voltmeters and the ammeters will be :
33. Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength? 34. Increase in tempertaure of a gas filled in a container would lead to : 35. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in one complete vibration is : 36. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque required to st 37. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept. perpendicular to a magnetic filed 5 × 10–5 T. When the plane of the 38. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 1 m. The coefficient o 39. The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is flowing due east. If he is st 40. The displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by
y = A0 + A sin$$\omega $$t + B cos$$\omega $ 41. In an experiment, the percentage of error occurred in the measurement of physical quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2 %, 42. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie wavelength is (nearly) : (me = 9 43. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break when : 44. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of unknown length have their increase in length independent of increase in tm 45. The correct Boolean operation represented by the circuit diagram drawn is :
1
NEET 2019
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has an overall masculine development, gynaecomastia,
and is sterile?
A
Edward syndrome
B
Down’s syndrome
C
Turner’s syndrome
D
Klinefelter’s syndrome
2
NEET 2019
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps?
A
A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 1% cross over.
B
A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes, representing 50% cross over.
C
A unit of distance between two expressed genes, representing 10% cross over.
D
A unit of distance between two expressed genes, representing 100% cross over.
3
NEET 2019
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the
frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population?
A
0.16(AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36(aa)
B
0.16 (AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)
C
0.36 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.16 (aa)
D
0.16 (AA); 0.24 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
4
NEET 2019
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Select the incorrect statement.
A
In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny depends on the type of sperm rather than egg.
B
Human males have one of their sex-chromosome much shorter than the other.
C
Male fruit fly is heterogametic
D
In male grasshoppers, 50% of sperms have no sex-chromosome.
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
78
Chemistry
35
Physics
45
More papers of NEET
NEET 2024 (Re-Examination)
NEET 2024
NEET 2023 Manipur
NEET 2023
NEET 2022 Phase 2
NEET 2022 Phase 1
NEET 2021
NEET 2020 Phase 1
NEET 2019
NEET 2018
NEET 2017
NEET 2016 Phase 2
NEET 2016 Phase 1
AIPMT 2015
AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper
AIPMT 2014
NEET 2013 (Karnataka)
NEET 2013
AIPMT 2012 Mains
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
AIPMT 2011 Mains
AIPMT 2011 Prelims
AIPMT 2010 Mains
AIPMT 2010 Prelims
AIPMT 2009
AIPMT 2008
AIPMT 2007
AIPMT 2006
AIPMT 2005
AIPMT 2004
AIPMT 2003
AIPMT 2002
AIPMT 2001
AIPMT 2000
NEET
Papers
2014
2009
2008
2007
2006
2005
2004
2003
2002
2001
2000