NEET 2019 | NEET Year Wise Previous Years Questions

Biology

Chemistry

1. Identify the incorrect statement related to PCl5 from the following : 2. An alkene “A” on reaction with O3 and Zn + H2O gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene 3. Which is the correct thermal stability order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)? 4. For a cell involving one electron $$E_{cell}^\Theta $$ = 0.59 V at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell reaction 5. For an ideal solution, the correct option is : 6. For the cell reaction 2Fe3+(aq) + 2I– (aq) $$ \to $$ 2Fe2+(aq) + I2(aq) $${E_{cell}^\Theta }$$ = 0.24 V at 298 K. The st 7. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for the completion of 99 % of the reaction i 8. For the chemical reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) the correct option is : 9. The most suitable reagent for the following conversion, is : 10. Match the following : .tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;} .tg td{border-style:solid;border-width:0px;font 11. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its structure in Column-II and assign the correct code : 12. The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is : 13. What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on crystal field theory? 14. The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction, is : 15. The major product of the following reaction is : 16. The non-essential amino acid among the following is : 17. The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is : 18. The compound that is most difficult to protonate is : 19. Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is : 20. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through Haber’s process is : 21. Conjugate base for Bronsted acids H2O and HF are : 22. Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in visible region? 23. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is : 24. For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionization enthalpy is : 25. The number of sigma ($$\sigma $$) and pi ($$\pi $$) bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne is - 26. The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral due to : 27. The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is : 28. Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only $$\pi $$ bonds according to Molecular Orbital Theory? 29. In which case change in entropy is negative? 30. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant external pressure of 2 bar. T 31. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is : 32. Which will make basic buffer? 33. Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reaction? (a) 2Cu+ $$ \to $$ Cu2+ + Cu0 (b) 3MnO42+ + 4H+ $$ \t 34. Which of the following is incorrect statement? 35. Which of the following species is not stable?

Physics

1. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 present near the bottom of a fully filled open tank of height 2 m. Taking g 2. Ionized hydrogen atoms and $$\alpha $$-particles with same momenta enters perpendicular to a constant magnetic field, B. 3. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long wire of length L, the length of the wire becomes (L + $$l$$). The elastic 4. The work done to raise a mass m from the surface of the earth to a height h, which is equal to the radius of the earth, 5. In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair of media in contact 6. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true? 7. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and – Q respectively, are placed at certain distance apart and force acting 8. $$\alpha $$-particale consists of : 9. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u collides with another body B of mass 2 m, at rest. The collision is head on and el 10. A body weight 200 N on the surface of earth. How much will it weight half way down to the centre of the earth? 11. Pick the wrong answer in the context with rainbow. 12. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed of 20 cm/s. How much work 13. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA and rB with speed vA and v 14. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 $$\mu $$F is being charged by a voltage source whose potential is changing 15. When an object is shot from the bottom of a long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60o with horizontal, it can trav 16. The unit of thermal conductivity is : 17. The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are, respectively. 18. Which of the following acts as a circuit protection device? 19. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown from a detergent solution having a surface tension of 2.5 $$ \times $$ 10 20. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal length f each, are kept coaxially in contact with each other such that the 21. In which of the following devices, the eddy current effect is not used? 22. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear charge densities +$$\lambda $$ C/m and -$$\lambda $$ C/m are placed at a 23. A particle moving with velocity $$\overrightarrow V $$ is acted by three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR. The v 24. The radius of circle, the period of revolution, initial position and sense of revolution are indicated is the figure. 25. A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a particle in y-direction where F is in newton and y in meter. Work done by this force to m 26. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from the ce 27. At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle of dip, $$\delta $$ = + 25o. At a point B on the earth's surface the angle 28. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf E, and zero internal resistance. The ra 29. In which of the following processes, heat is neither absorbed nor released by a system? 30. In a double slit experiment, when light of wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width of the first minima formed on a 31. A cylinderical conductor of radius R is carrying a constant current. The plot of the magnitude of the magnetic field. B 32. In the circuits shown below, the readings of voltmeters and the ammeters will be : 33. Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength? 34. Increase in tempertaure of a gas filled in a container would lead to : 35. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in one complete vibration is : 36. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque required to st 37. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept. perpendicular to a magnetic filed 5 × 10–5 T. When the plane of the 38. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 1 m. The coefficient o 39. The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is flowing due east. If he is st 40. The displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by y = A0 + A sin$$\omega $$t + B cos$$\omega $ 41. In an experiment, the percentage of error occurred in the measurement of physical quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2 %, 42. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie wavelength is (nearly) : (me = 9 43. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break when : 44. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of unknown length have their increase in length independent of increase in tm 45. The correct Boolean operation represented by the circuit diagram drawn is :

NEET 2019

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-1

Match the hominids with their correct brain size :

(a) Homo habilis	(i) 900 cc
(b) Homo neanderthalensis	(ii) 1350 cc
(c) Homo erectus	(iii) 650-800 cc
(d) Homo sapiens	(iv) 1400 cc

Select the correct option.

(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(iii)	(iv)	(i)	(ii)

(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(iv)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)

(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)

(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(iii)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)

NEET 2019

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-1

Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for typhoid.

Salmonella typhi/ Anthorone test

Salmonella typhi/ Widal test

Plasmodium vivax/ UTI test

Streptococcus pneumoniae/ Widal test

NEET 2019

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-1

In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place?

Disruptive Selection

Cyclical Selection

Directional Selection

Stabilizing Selection

NEET 2019

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-1

Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the newborn infants because it contains :

Macrophages

Immunoglobulin A

Natural killer cells

Monocytes

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