NEET 2019 | NEET Year Wise Previous Years Questions

Biology

Chemistry

1. For the chemical reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) the correct option is : 2. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its structure in Column-II and assign the correct code : 3. The non-essential amino acid among the following is : 4. For the cell reaction 2Fe3+(aq) + 2I– (aq) $$ \to $$ 2Fe2+(aq) + I2(aq) $${E_{cell}^\Theta }$$ = 0.24 V at 298 K. The st 5. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for the completion of 99 % of the reaction i 6. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the order of decreasing energy. The correct option is : 7. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules required to produce 20 moles of ammonia through Haber’s process is : 8. The number of sigma ($$\sigma $$) and pi ($$\pi $$) bonds in pent-2-en-4-yne is - 9. The compound that is most difficult to protonate is : 10. For a cell involving one electron $$E_{cell}^\Theta $$ = 0.59 V at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell reaction 11. What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on crystal field theory? 12. An alkene “A” on reaction with O3 and Zn + H2O gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene 13. Which is the correct thermal stability order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)? 14. Identify the incorrect statement related to PCl5 from the following : 15. The structure of intermediate A in the following reaction, is : 16. The most suitable reagent for the following conversion, is : 17. The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is : 18. The major product of the following reaction is : 19. Match the following : .tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;} .tg td{border-style:solid;border-width:0px;font 20. The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is : 21. Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution, is : 22. For an ideal solution, the correct option is : 23. The manganate and permanganate ions are tetrahedral due to : 24. Which of the following species is not stable? 25. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is : 26. Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in visible region? 27. Which of the following diatomic molecular species has only $$\pi $$ bonds according to Molecular Orbital Theory? 28. Which will make basic buffer? 29. The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is : 30. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a constant external pressure of 2 bar. T 31. Which of the following is incorrect statement? 32. Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reaction? (a) 2Cu+ $$ \to $$ Cu2+ + Cu0 (b) 3MnO42- + 4H+ $$ \t 33. For the second period elements the correct increasing order of first ionization enthalpy is : 34. In which case change in entropy is negative? 35. Conjugate base for Bronsted acids H2O and HF are :

Physics

1. The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are, respectively. 2. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 present near the bottom of a fully filled open tank of height 2 m. Taking g 3. In total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is equal to the critical angle for the pair of media in contact 4. A body weight 200 N on the surface of earth. How much will it weight half way down to the centre of the earth? 5. Which of the following acts as a circuit protection device? 6. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed of 20 cm/s. How much work 7. The unit of thermal conductivity is : 8. Ionized hydrogen atoms and $$\alpha $$-particles with same momenta enters perpendicular to a constant magnetic field, B. 9. Pick the wrong answer in the context with rainbow. 10. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal length f each, are kept coaxially in contact with each other such that the 11. When an object is shot from the bottom of a long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60o with horizontal, it can trav 12. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque required to st 13. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u collides with another body B of mass 2 m, at rest. The collision is head on and el 14. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown from a detergent solution having a surface tension of 2.5 $$ \times $$ 10 15. A particle moving with velocity $$\overrightarrow V $$ is acted by three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR. The v 16. In a double slit experiment, when light of wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular width of the first minima formed on a 17. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most likely to break when : 18. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA and rB with speed vA and v 19. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept. perpendicular to a magnetic filed 5 × 10–5 T. When the plane of the 20. In which of the following processes, heat is neither absorbed nor released by a system? 21. The radius of circle, the period of revolution, initial position and sense of revolution are indicated is the figure. 22. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie wavelength is (nearly) : (me = 9 23. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 1 m. The coefficient o 24. In the circuits shown below, the readings of voltmeters and the ammeters will be : 25. Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength? 26. Increase in tempertaure of a gas filled in a container would lead to : 27. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in one complete vibration is : 28. The speed of a swimmer in still water is 20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and is flowing due east. If he is st 29. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of unknown length have their increase in length independent of increase in tm 30. The correct Boolean operation represented by the circuit diagram drawn is : 31. At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle of dip, $$\delta $$ = + 25o. At a point B on the earth's surface the angle 32. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from the ce 33. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf E, and zero internal resistance. The ra 34. The displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by y = A0 + A sin$$\omega $$t + B cos$$\omega $ 35. A force F = 20 + 10y acts on a particle in y-direction where F is in newton and y in meter. Work done by this force to m 36. A cylinderical conductor of radius R is carrying a constant current. The plot of the magnitude of the magnetic field. B 37. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear charge densities +$$\lambda $$ C/m and -$$\lambda $$ C/m are placed at a 38. The work done to raise a mass m from the surface of the earth to a height h, which is equal to the radius of the earth, 39. In which of the following devices, the eddy current effect is not used? 40. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long wire of length L, the length of the wire becomes (L + $$l$$). The elastic 41. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q and – Q respectively, are placed at certain distance apart and force acting 42. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 $$\mu $$F is being charged by a voltage source whose potential is changing 43. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true? 44. $$\alpha $$-particale consists of : 45. In an experiment, the percentage of error occurred in the measurement of physical quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2 %,

NEET 2019

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-1

At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle of dip, $$\delta $$ = + 25^o. At a point B on the earth's surface the angle of dip, $$\delta $$ = – 25^o. We can interpret that :

A is located in the southern hemisphere and B is located in the northern hemisphere.

A is located in the northern hemisphere and B is located in the southern hemisphere.

A and B are both located in the southern hemisphere.

A and B are both located in the northerm hemisphere.

NEET 2019

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-1

A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from the centre :

zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as r increases for r > R

zero as r increases for r < R, increases as r increases for r > R.

decreases as r increases for r < R and for r > R.

increases as r increases for r < R and for r > R.

NEET 2019

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-1

Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC source of emf E, and zero internal resistance.

The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation when two from section A and one from section B are glowing, will be : NEET 2019 Physics - Current Electricity Question 46 English

NEET 2019 Physics - Current Electricity Question 46 English

4 : 9

9 : 4

1 : 2

2 : 1

NEET 2019

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-1

The displacement of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by

y = A₀ + A sin$$\omega $$t + B cos$$\omega $$t.

Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given by :

$$\sqrt {{A^2} + {B^2}} $$

A + B

A + $$\sqrt {{A^2} + {B^2}} $$

$$\sqrt {A_0^2 + {{\left( {A + B} \right)}^2}} $$

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