Biology
1. Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation? 2. Identify the correct set of statements:
(a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvill 3. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler 4. Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained form : 5. Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens? 6. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? 7. The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as: 8. Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division? 9. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found 10. Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis? It inv 11. Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for : 12. What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid? 13. "Girdling Experiment" was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which: 14. Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity? 15. DNA polymorphism forms the basis of: 16. XO type of sex determination can be found in : 17. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) 18. The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to: 19. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous
Statement II : Cleistogamy 20. Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of: 21. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:
(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin
(b) 22. Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation? 23. The flowers are Zygomorphic in :
(a) Mustard (b) Gulmohar (c) Cassia (d) Datura (e) Chilly
Choose the correct answer fro 24. Read the following statements about the vascular bundles:
(a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arrang 25. Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination: 26. Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique? 27. Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has r 28. What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation? 29. In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to :
(a) secretion of 30. The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes: 31. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and propose 32. Transposons can be used during which one of the following? 33. While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, ($$-$$) sign 34. Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit?
35. Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits:
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{borde 36. Match List I with List II.
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:sol 37. Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait? 38. Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle? 39. In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme? 40. Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements :
(a) Lecithin found in the plasma membra 41. what is the role of large bundle sheath cells found around the vascular bundles in C4 plants? 42. If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of functi 43. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) 44. The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements about springwood.
(a) It 45. In-situ conservation refers to : 46. In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard? 47. If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will b the approximate number of base pairs? 48. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes 49. Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis?
(a) It results in the 50. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) 51. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as 52. Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as: 53. Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver ____________ ml of O2 54. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) 55. Which of the following is not a connective tissue? 56. Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by : 57. Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect? 58. In an E. Coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided 59. Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms? 60. Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A : 61. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.
Statement II : 62. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins.
Statement I 63. A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to product maltose. If the formula for glucose is C6H12O6 then what i 64. Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect? 65. Tegmina in cockroach, arises from 66. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation 67. If '8' Drosophila in a laboratory population of '80' died during a week, the death rate in the population is ___________ 68. Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to 69. Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system? 70. In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in case of animals? 71. At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated? 72. In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineere 73. Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis : 74. Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called : 75. If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having co 76. Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity. 77. Statements related to human Insulin are given below.
Which statements is/are correct about genetically engineered Insuli 78. Which one of the following statements is correct? 79. Match List-I with List-II:
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:sol 80. Ten E.coli cells with 15N - dsDNA are incubated in medium containing 14N nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many E.coli c 81. The recombination frequency between the genes a & c 5&, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d is 25% and a & d 82. Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone?
(a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption
(b) Dec 83. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector? 84. Which of the following statements is not true? 85. Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses : 86. Match List - I with List - II
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style: 87. Match List-I with List-II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions.
.tg {border-collapse: 88. Which of the following is a correct statement?
Chemistry
1. Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done? 2. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) 3. Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound? 4. The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is 5. Match List-I with List-II.
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:sol 6. The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is 7. The IUPAC name of the complex -
[Ag(H2O)2][Ag(CN)2] is: 8. Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of 9. Amongst the following which one will have maximum 'lone pair - lone pair' electron repulsions? 10. Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane? 11. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons 12. Given below are two statements
Statement I : The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases 13. The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a reaction
The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions, resp 14. The incorrect statement regarding chirality is 15. Which of the following sequence of reactions is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene? 16. Identify the incorrect statement from the following. 17. The Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the 18. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol be 19. At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of Cu2+ / Cu, Zn2+ / Zn, Fe2+ / Fe and Ag+ / Ag are 0.34 V, $$-$$0.76 V, $$- 20. Given below are two statements
Statement I : Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO2 to give unstable diazonium salts.
21. In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is 22. RMgX + CO2 $$\mathrel{\mathop{\kern0pt\longrightarrow}
\limits_{ether}^{dry}} $$ Y $$\buildrel {{H_3}{O^ + }} \over
\lo 23. Given below are half cell reactions:
$$MnO_4^ - + 8{H^ + } + 5{e^ - } \to M{n^{2 + }} + 4{H_2}O$$,
$$E_{M{n^{2 + }}/MnO 24. What mass of 95% pure CaCO3 will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the following reacti 25. The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is [Given pKa of CH3COOH = 26. Match List-I with List-II.
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:sol 27. Which amongst the following is incorrect statement? 28. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished 29. If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of Li2+ ion? 30. For a first order reaction A $$\to$$ Products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M after 5 minute 31. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is
32. Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K
Ni(s) + 2Ag+ (0.001 M) $$\to$$ Ni2+ (0.001 33. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is
34. The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes
(A) [Ni(H2O)2(en)2]2+
(B) [Ni(H2O)4(en)]2+ 35. Compound X on reaction with O3 followed by Zn/H2O gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl propanal as products. The compound X i 36. 3O2(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 2O3(g)
for the above reaction at 298 K, Kc is found to be 3.0 $$\times$$ 10$$-$$59. If the 37. Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presence of dilute NaOH followed by
Physics
1. Match List - I with List - II
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style: 2. An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure below. Those processe 3. The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 second 4.
In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in 5. A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the powe 6. As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance 7. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph shown, which represents 8. The dimensions [MLT$$-$$2A$$-$$2] belong to the 9. In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be 10. If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse 11. A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. If the frag 12. Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with neglig 13. If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble 14. An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 1.5 ms$$-$$1. 15. The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is 16. When two monochromatic lights of frequency, v and $${v \over 2}$$ are incident on a photoelectric metal, their stopping 17. A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field strength a 18. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength 19. The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its pl 20. The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to 21. The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100 kW transmitter in 1 hour is 22. In a Young's double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a monochromatic li 23. A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 $$\Omega$$ is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of loop is pe 24. Two resistors of resistance, 100 $$\Omega$$ and 200 $$\Omega$$ are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The r 25. The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second 26. A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the 27. A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index $$\sqrt3$$, at an angle 60$$^\circ$$. The angle between the ref 28. When light propagates through a material medium of relative permittivity $$\varepsilon $$r and relative permeability $$\ 29. Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 (R1 >> R2) have equal charges. The potential would be 30. A copper wire of length 10 m and radius $$\left( {{{{{10}^{ - 2}}} \over {\sqrt \pi }}} \right)$$ m has electrical resi 31. The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 30$$^\circ$$ and 45$$^\circ$$ with the x-axis as sho 32. Plane angle and solid angle have 33. Let T1 and T2 be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atoms, respectively. Accor 34. Match List - I with List - II
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style: 35. Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position 36. The area of a rectangular field (in m2) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for correct signi 37. A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 ms$$-$$1, at an angle of 60$$^\circ$$ with the vertical direction. Its speed at 38.
The truth table for the given logic circuit is 39. From Ampere's circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady current, the variation 40. A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10 $$\mu$$F, resistance 50 $$\Omega$$ is connected to an ac sourc 41. Two point charges $$-$$q and +q are placed at a distance of L, as shown in the figure.
The magnitude of electric field 42. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) 43. A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at 2 rad s$$-$$1. If 44. The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish away is 45. A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged fully by 100 V battery B as shown in figure (a). Then it is disconnecte 46. A wheatstone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the variable resistance Y as sho 47. Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are 1.5 $$\times$$ 10 48. A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of two daughter n
1
NEET 2022 Phase 1
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated?
A
Puberty
B
Embryonic development stage
C
Birth
D
Adult
2
NEET 2022 Phase 1
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because:
A
Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes.
B
Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic stages
C
Lymphocytes from patient's blood are grown in culture, outside the body
D
Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal cells.
3
NEET 2022 Phase 1
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis :
A
All the chromosomes lie at the equator at metaphase
B
Spindle fibres attach to centromere of chromosomes
C
Chromosomes decondense at telophase
D
Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase
4
NEET 2022 Phase 1
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called :
A
Catabolism
B
Fragmentation
C
Humification
D
Decomposition
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
88
Chemistry
37
Physics
48
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