NEET 2022 Phase 1 | NEET Year Wise Previous Years Questions

Biology

Chemistry

1. Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done? 2. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) Assertion (A) 3. Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound? 4. The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is 5. Match List-I with List-II. .tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;} .tg td{border-color:black;border-style:sol 6. The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is 7. The IUPAC name of the complex - [Ag(H2O)2][Ag(CN)2] is: 8. Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of 9. Amongst the following which one will have maximum 'lone pair - lone pair' electron repulsions? 10. Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane? 11. Given below are two statements : Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons 12. Given below are two statements Statement I : The boiling points of the following hydrides of group 16 elements increases 13. The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a reaction The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions, resp 14. The incorrect statement regarding chirality is 15. Which of the following sequence of reactions is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene? 16. Identify the incorrect statement from the following. 17. The Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of nitrogen in which one of the 18. Given below are two statements: Statement I: The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol be 19. At 298 K, the standard electrode potentials of Cu2+ / Cu, Zn2+ / Zn, Fe2+ / Fe and Ag+ / Ag are 0.34 V, $$-$$0.76 V, $$- 20. Given below are two statements Statement I : Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO2 to give unstable diazonium salts. 21. In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is 22. RMgX + CO2 $$\mathrel{\mathop{\kern0pt\longrightarrow} \limits_{ether}^{dry}} $$ Y $$\buildrel {{H_3}{O^ + }} \over \lo 23. Given below are half cell reactions: $$MnO_4^ - + 8{H^ + } + 5{e^ - } \to M{n^{2 + }} + 4{H_2}O$$, $$E_{M{n^{2 + }}/MnO 24. What mass of 95% pure CaCO3 will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the following reacti 25. The pH of the solution containing 50 mL each of 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.01 M acetic acid is [Given pKa of CH3COOH = 26. Match List-I with List-II. .tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;} .tg td{border-color:black;border-style:sol 27. Which amongst the following is incorrect statement? 28. Given below are two statements: Statement I : In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished 29. If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr orbit of Li2+ ion? 30. For a first order reaction A $$\to$$ Products, initial concentration of A is 0.1 M, which becomes 0.001 M after 5 minute 31. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is 32. Find the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place at 298 K Ni(s) + 2Ag+ (0.001 M) $$\to$$ Ni2+ (0.001 33. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is 34. The order of energy absorbed which is responsible for the color of complexes (A) [Ni(H2O)2(en)2]2+ (B) [Ni(H2O)4(en)]2+ 35. Compound X on reaction with O3 followed by Zn/H2O gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl propanal as products. The compound X i 36. 3O2(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 2O3(g) for the above reaction at 298 K, Kc is found to be 3.0 $$\times$$ 10$$-$$59. If the 37. Which one of the following is not formed when acetone reacts with 2-pentanone in the presence of dilute NaOH followed by

Physics

1. Match List - I with List - II .tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;} .tg td{border-color:black;border-style: 2. An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from the same initial state as shown in the figure below. Those processe 3. The angular speed of a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200 rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 second 4. In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in 5. A biconvex lens has radii of curvature, 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5, the powe 6. As the temperature increases, the electrical resistance 7. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid. The curve in the graph shown, which represents 8. The dimensions [MLT$$-$$2A$$-$$2] belong to the 9. In half wave rectification, if the input frequency is 60 Hz, then the output frequency would be 10. If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speeds of a transverse 11. A shell of mass m is at rest initially. It explodes into three fragments having mass in the ratio 2 : 2 : 1. If the frag 12. Two objects of mass 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected to the two ends of a rigid rod of length 10 m with neglig 13. If a soap bubble expands, the pressure inside the bubble 14. An electric lift with a maximum load of 2000 kg (lift + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 1.5 ms$$-$$1. 15. The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is 16. When two monochromatic lights of frequency, v and $${v \over 2}$$ are incident on a photoelectric metal, their stopping 17. A long solenoid of radius 1 mm has 100 turns per mm. If 1 A current flows in the solenoid, the magnetic field strength a 18. Given below are two statements: Statement I : Biot-Savart's law gives us the expression for the magnetic field strength 19. The ratio of the radius of gyration of a thin uniform disc about an axis passing through its centre and normal to its pl 20. The peak voltage of the ac source is equal to 21. The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100 kW transmitter in 1 hour is 22. In a Young's double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a monochromatic li 23. A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 $$\Omega$$ is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5 T. If the plane of loop is pe 24. Two resistors of resistance, 100 $$\Omega$$ and 200 $$\Omega$$ are connected in parallel in an electrical circuit. The r 25. The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th second 26. A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the 27. A light ray falls on a glass surface of refractive index $$\sqrt3$$, at an angle 60$$^\circ$$. The angle between the ref 28. When light propagates through a material medium of relative permittivity $$\varepsilon $$r and relative permeability $$\ 29. Two hollow conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 (R1 >> R2) have equal charges. The potential would be 30. A copper wire of length 10 m and radius $$\left( {{{{{10}^{ - 2}}} \over {\sqrt \pi }}} \right)$$ m has electrical resi 31. The displacement-time graphs of two moving particles make angles of 30$$^\circ$$ and 45$$^\circ$$ with the x-axis as sho 32. Plane angle and solid angle have 33. Let T1 and T2 be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen atoms, respectively. Accor 34. Match List - I with List - II .tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;} .tg td{border-color:black;border-style: 35. Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position 36. The area of a rectangular field (in m2) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off the value for correct signi 37. A ball is projected with a velocity, 10 ms$$-$$1, at an angle of 60$$^\circ$$ with the vertical direction. Its speed at 38. The truth table for the given logic circuit is 39. From Ampere's circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross-section carrying a steady current, the variation 40. A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, capacitance 10 $$\mu$$F, resistance 50 $$\Omega$$ is connected to an ac sourc 41. Two point charges $$-$$q and +q are placed at a distance of L, as shown in the figure. The magnitude of electric field 42. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) 43. A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at 2 rad s$$-$$1. If 44. The volume occupied by the molecules contained in 4.5 kg water at STP, if the intermolecular forces vanish away is 45. A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged fully by 100 V battery B as shown in figure (a). Then it is disconnecte 46. A wheatstone bridge is used to determine the value of unknown resistance X by adjusting the variable resistance Y as sho 47. Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are 1.5 $$\times$$ 10 48. A nucleus of mass number 189 splits into two nuclei having mass number 125 and 64. The ratio of radius of two daughter n

NEET 2022 Phase 1

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-1

While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, ($$-$$) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one specifies and ($$-$$) for another specifies involved in the interaction?

Predation

Amensalim

Commensalism

Competition

NEET 2022 Phase 1

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-1

Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit?

NEET 2022 Phase 1 Biology - Morphology of Flowering Plants Question 19 English

A $$\to$$ Mesocarp

B $$\to$$ Endocarp

C $$\to$$ Thalamus

D $$\to$$ Seed

NEET 2022 Phase 1

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-1

Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits:

	List - I		List - II
(a)	Spirogyra	(i)	Dominant diploid sporophyte vascular plant, with highly reduced male or female gametophyte
(b)	Fern	(ii)	Dominant haploid free-living gametophyte
(c)	Funaria	(iii)	Dominant diploid sporophyte alternating with reduced gametophyte called prothallus
(d)	Cycas	(iv)	Dominant haploid leafy gametophyte alternating with partially dependent multicellular sporophyte

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

NEET 2022 Phase 1

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-1

Match List I with List II.

	List - I		List - II
(a)	Metacentric chromosome	(i)	Centromere situated close to the end forming one extremely short and one very long arms
(b)	Acrocentric chromosome	(ii)	Centromere at the terminal end
(c)	Submetacentric	(iii)	Centromere in the middle forming two equal arms of chromosomes
(d)	Telocentric chromosome	(iv)	Centromere slightly away from the middle forming one shorter arm and one longer arm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

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2024