Biology
1. Which type of white blood cells are connected with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant heparin? 2. The C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient than C3 plants because 3. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis during CO2 fixation occurs in 4. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed b 5. The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidised without an external electron acceptor is called 6. Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in growth and functioning of a flowering plant, is indicated in 7. Importance of day length in flowering of plants was first shown in 8. In humans, blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to 9. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are 10. Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II are accepted first by 11. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of 12. Which one of the following pair of organs includes only the endocrine glands? 13. The blood calcium level is lowered by the deficiency of 14. What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance into ovule? 15. Unisexuality of flowers prevents 16. Which one of the following is resistant to enzyme action? 17. Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes ? 18. Which extraembryonic membrane in humans
prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the
uterus? 19. In human adult females oxytocin: 20. Select one of the following pairs of important features distinguishing Gnetum from Cycas and Pinus and showing affinitie 21. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species 22. In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), wh 23. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify 24. Which one of the following in birds, indicates their reptilian ancestry? 25. In which one of the following male and female gametophytes do not have free living independent existance? 26. Ascaris is characterized by 27. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic morphological 28. Which one of the following is heterosporous? 29. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of Phylum Annelida? 30. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect about menstruation? 31. Which one of the following pairs of items correctly belongs to the category of organs mentioned against it? 32. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics? 33. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig encloses a number of 34. Replum is present in the ovary of flower of 35. Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed from bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary is 36. Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the sead of 37. The fruit is chambered, developed from inferior ovary and has seeds with succulent testa in 38. Cellulose is the major component of cell walls of 39. Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plants storage organs. Which of the following five properties of starch (1 40. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is 41. Modern detergents contain enzyme preparations of 42. The length of different internodes in a culm of
sugarcane is variable because of: 43. Main objective of production/use of herbicide
resistant GM crops is to: 44. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with
the plasmid vector became possible with: 45. World Summit on Sustainable Development
(2002) was held in: 46. About 70% of total global carbon is found in: 47. Consider the following four statements (1-4) about
certain desert animals such as kangaroo-rat.
(i) They have dark colo 48. The table below gives the populations
(in thousands) of ten species (A-J) in four areas
(a-d) consisting of the number o 49. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in
nature is due to their: 50. Consider the following statements concerning
food chains:
(i) Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted
in greatly in 51. Which one of the following is not observed in
biodiversity hotspots ? 52. Quercus species are the dominant component in: 53. Gel electrophoresis is used for: 54. Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop
from: 55. Vacuole in a plant cell: 56. In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded
exclusively in the: 57. Earthworms have no skeleton but during
burrowing the anterior end becomes turgid and
acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is 58. The two sub-units of ribosome remain united at a
critical ion level of : 59. Keeping in view the "fluid mosaic model" for
the structure of cell membrane, which one of the
following statements is co 60. Which one of the following is the true
description about an animal concerned? 61. Given below is a diagrammatic cross section
of a single loop of human cochlea.
Which one of the following options corre 62. A transgenic food crop which may help in
solving the problem of night blindness in
developing countries is 63. Darwin's finches are a good example of – 64. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their
modes of action (1-4) in achieving
contraception. Select their correct matc 65. Consider the statements given below regarding
contraception and answer as directed thereafter:
(i) Medical Termination 66. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic
division, the male germ cells differentiate into
the: 67. In the DNA molecule: 68. Polysome is formed by 69. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous
bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with
the category mentioned a 70. Which one of the following conditions in
humans is correctly matched with its
chromosomal abnormality/linkage? 71. Which one of the following pairs of codons is
correctly matched with their function or the
signal for the particular ami 72. Which one of the following is incorrect about
the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates
and microspheres) as envis 73. Which one of the following scientist's name is
correctly matched with the theory put fourth by
him? 74. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
are examples of: 75. Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is
brought about by: 76. Which one of the following proved effective for
biological control of nematodal disese in plants? 77. Match the disease in Column I with the
appropriate items (pathogen/ prevention/
treatment) in Column II.
.tg {border-c 78. Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful
microorganism for: 79. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies
than the diploids. This is because: 80. Which one of the following is the correct
statement regarding the particular psychotropic
drug specified ? 81. Human insulin is being commercially produced
from a transgenic species of: 82. Cry I endotoxins obtained from Bacillus
thuringiensis are effective against:
Chemistry
1. In which of the following coordination entities the magnitude of $$\Delta $$o (CFSE in octahedral field) will be maximum 2. Which of the following complexes exhibits the highest paramagnetic behaviour?
where gly = glycine, en = ethylenediamin 3. How many moles of lead (II) chloride will be formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO and 3.2 g HCl ? 4. In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type
R $$-$$ Br + Cl$$-$$ $$\buildrel {DMF} \over
\longrightarrow $$ R$$-$$Cl + 5. A strong base can abstract an $$\alpha $$-hydrogen from 6. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of 7. Number of moles of MnO$$_4^{ - }$$ required to oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic medium will be 8. Acetophenone when reacted with a base, C2H5ONa, yields a stable compound which has the structure 9. In DNA, the complimentary bases are 10. In a reaction of aniline a coloured product C was obtained.
The structure of C would be 11. Which of the following is an amine hormone? 12. How many stereoisomers does this molecule have?
CH3CH$$=$$CHCH2CHBrCH3 13. On the basis of the following Eo values, the strongest oxidizing agent is
[Fe(CN)6]4$$-$$ $$ \to $$ [Fe(CN)6]3$$-$$ + e 14. Standard free energies of formation (in kJ/mol) at 298 K are $$-$$237.2, $$-$$ 394.4 and $$-$$8.2 for H2O(l), CO2(g) and 15. Kohlrausch's law states that at 16. The rate constants k1 and k2 for two different reactions are 1016 $$ \cdot $$ e$$-$$2000/T and 1015 $$ \cdot $$ e$$-$$ 17. The angular shape of ozone molecule (O3) consists of 18. The bromination of acetone that occurs in acid solution is represented by this equation.
CH3COCH3(aq) + Br2(aq) &n 19. The correct order of decreasing second ionisation enthalpy of Ti(22), V(23), Cr(24) and Mn(25) is 20. Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2, Cl2 and HCl are 434, 242 and 431 kJ mol$$-$$1 respectively. Enthalpy of formation of H 21. What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measuread at 0oC and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely 1 L of propane gas (C3H8) measu 22. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 38.71% and H, 9.67%. The empiri 23. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is 24. The measurement of the electron position is associated with an uncertainty in momentum, which is equal to 1 $$ \times $$ 25. Which one of the following arrangements does not give the correct picture of the trends indicated against it ? 26. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following triatomic species is 27. Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is increasing in them 28. For the gas phase reaction,
PCl5(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
which of the following condition 29. Which of the following are not state functions ?
(I) q + w (II) q
(III) w&n 30. The dissociation equilibrium of a gass AB2 can be represented as :
2AB2(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 2AB(g) + B2(g)
The d 31. The values of for the reactions,
X $$\rightleftharpoons$$ Y + Z . . . .(i)
A $$\r 32. The value of equilibrium constant of the reaction
HI(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ $${1 \over 2}$$H2(g) + $${1 \over 2}$$I2 33. If the concentration of OH$$-$$ ions in the reaction
Fe(OH)3(s) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ Fe3+(aq) + 3OH$$-$$(aq)
is decr 34. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4 and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the H+ ion concentration in t 35. The stability of carbanions in the following.
is in the order of 36.
A (predominantly) is 37. Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic attack? 38. In the hydrocarbon,
The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 are in the following sequence 39. Base strength of
is in the order of
Physics
1. A particle of mass 1 mg has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a velocity of 3 $$ \times $$ 106 m s$$-$$1. T 2. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance between the p 3. An electric kettle takes 4 A current at 220 V. How much time will it take to boil 1 kg of water from temperature 20oC ? 4. A particle of mass m, charge Q and kinetic energy T enters a transverse uniform magnetic field of induction $$\overright 5. A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a charge +Q. The electric field at the centre O of the ring due to the charg 6. A current of 3 amp. flows through the 2 $$\Omega $$ resistor shown in the circuit. The power dissipated in the 5 $$\Omeg 7. A galvanometer of resistance 50 $$\Omega $$ is connected to a battery of 3 V along with a resistance of 2950 $$\Omega $$ 8. A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic forces on segments PS, SR a 9. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity $$\varepsilon $$0 and permeability $$\mu $$0 is gi 10. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current of 2 ampere is passed through it, the resulting magnetic flux linked with 11. In an a.c. circuit the e.m.f. ($$\varepsilon $$) and the current
(i) at any instant are given respectively b 12. A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction $${1 \over \pi }\left( {{{Wb} \ov 13.
In the circuit shown, the current through the 4 $$\Omega $$ resistor is 1 amp when the points P and M are connected to 14. A boy is trying to start a fire by focusing sunlight on a piece of paper using an equiconvex lens of focal length 10 cm. 15. The work function of a surface of a photosensitive material is 6.2 eV. The wavelength of the incident radiation for whic 16. In the phenomenon of electric discharge through gases at low pressure, the coloured glow in the tube appears as a result 17. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact and coaxial. The power of the combination is 18. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of the radiation that can be abs 19. If M(A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus $${}_Z^AX,$$ proton and neutron respectively in units of u (1 u = 20. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is $$-$$ 13.6 eV. When its electron is in the first excited state, its excitati 21. If the lattice parameter for a crystalline structure is 3.6 $$\mathop A\limits^ \circ $$, then the atomic radius in fcc 22. A shell of mass 200 gm is ejected from a gun of mass 4 kg by an explosion that generates 1.05 kJ of energy. The initial 23. A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10 ms$$-$$1 to 20 ms$$-$$ 24. Which two of the following five physical parameters have the same dimensions ?
1. Energy density
2. &nb 25. The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration $${4 \over 3}$$m s$$-$$2, in th 26. A particle of mass m is projected with velocity v making an angle of 45o with the horizontal. When the particle lands on 27. A particle shows distance - time curve as given in this figure. The maximum instaneous velocity of the particle is aroun 28. A roller coaster is designed such that riders experience ''weightlessness'' as they go round the top of a hill whose ra 29. Sand is being dropped on a conveyer belt at the rate of M kg/s. The force necessary to keep the belt moving with a cons 30.
Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force only along the y-direction, the mag 31. A thin rod of length L and mass M is bent at its midpoint into two halves so that the angle between them is 90o. The mo 32. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional forces are 1 33. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc to that of a circular ring, each of same mass and radius, around t 34. On a new scale of temperature (which is linear) and called the W scale, the freezing and boiling points of water are 39o 35. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat added, change in internal energy and the work done in a closed cyclic process 36. The wave described by y = 0.25 sin(10$$\pi $$x $$-$$ 2$$\pi $$t), where x and y are in metres and t in seconds, is a wav 37. Two periodic waves of intensities $$I$$1 and $$I$$2 pass through a region at the same time in the same direction. The su 38. Two simple harmonic motions of angular frequency 100 and 1000 rad s$$-$$1 have the same displacement amplitude. The rati 39. At 10oC the value of the density of a fixed mass of an ideal gas divided by it pressure is x. At 110oC this ratio is 40. A point performs simple harmonic oscillation of period T and the equation of motion is given by x = a sin($$\omega $$t + 41. A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 cm of potentiometer wire, respectively with and without being short circui 42. The electric potential at a point in free space due to charge Q coulomb is Q $$ \times $$ 1011 volts. The electric field 43. Curie temperature above which 44. A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by ten percent. Its new resistance and specific resistance become respe 45. If the error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 2%, then the error in the determination of volume of the sphere
1
AIPMT 2008
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
For the gas phase reaction,
PCl5(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
which of the following conditions are correct ?
PCl5(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
which of the following conditions are correct ?
A
$$\Delta $$H < 0 and $$\Delta $$S < 0
B
$$\Delta $$H > 0 and $$\Delta $$S < 0
C
$$\Delta $$H = 0 and $$\Delta $$S < 0
D
$$\Delta $$H > 0 and $$\Delta $$S > 0
2
AIPMT 2008
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which of the following are not state functions ?
(I) q + w (II) q
(III) w (IV) H $$-$$ TS
(I) q + w (II) q
(III) w (IV) H $$-$$ TS
A
(I), (II) and (III)
B
(II) and (III)
C
(I) and (IV)
D
(II), (III) and (IV)
3
AIPMT 2008
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The dissociation equilibrium of a gass AB2 can be represented as :
2AB2(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 2AB(g) + B2(g)
The degree of dissociation is x and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kp and total pressure P is
2AB2(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 2AB(g) + B2(g)
The degree of dissociation is x and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kp and total pressure P is
A
(2Kp/P)1/2
B
(Kp/P)
C
(2Kp/P)
D
(2Kp/P)1/3
4
AIPMT 2008
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The values of for the reactions,
X $$\rightleftharpoons$$ Y + Z . . . .(i)
A $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 2B . . . .(ii)
are in the ratio 9 : 1. If degree of dissociation of X and A be equal, then total pressure at equilibrium (i) and (ii) are in the ratio
X $$\rightleftharpoons$$ Y + Z . . . .(i)
A $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 2B . . . .(ii)
are in the ratio 9 : 1. If degree of dissociation of X and A be equal, then total pressure at equilibrium (i) and (ii) are in the ratio
A
36 : 1
B
1 : 1
C
3 : 1
D
1 : 9
Paper Analysis
Total Questions
Biology 82
Chemistry 39
Physics 45
More Papers of NEET
NEET 2026 NEET 2025 NEET 2024 (Re-Examination) NEET 2024 NEET 2023 Manipur NEET 2023 NEET 2022 Phase 2 NEET 2022 Phase 1 NEET 2021 NEET 2020 Phase 1 NEET 2019 NEET 2018 NEET 2017 NEET 2016 Phase 2 NEET 2016 Phase 1 AIPMT 2015 AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper AIPMT 2014 NEET 2013 (Karnataka) NEET 2013 AIPMT 2012 Mains AIPMT 2012 Prelims AIPMT 2011 Mains AIPMT 2011 Prelims AIPMT 2010 Mains AIPMT 2010 Prelims AIPMT 2009 AIPMT 2008 AIPMT 2007 AIPMT 2006 AIPMT 2005 AIPMT 2004 AIPMT 2003 AIPMT 2002 AIPMT 2001 AIPMT 2000
NEET Papers
All year-wise previous year question papers
2014
2009
2008
2007
2006
2005
2004
2003
2002
2001
2000