Biology
1. Which type of white blood cells are connected with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant heparin? 2. Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II are accepted first by 3. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis during CO2 fixation occurs in 4. The C4 plants are photosynthetically more efficient than C3 plants because 5. The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidised without an external electron acceptor is called 6. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed b 7. Importance of day length in flowering of plants was first shown in 8. Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in growth and functioning of a flowering plant, is indicated in 9. In humans, blood passes from the post caval to the diastolic right atrium of heart due to 10. The most active phagocytic white blood cells are 11. Cornea transplant in humans is almost never rejected. This is because 12. Which one of the following is the correct difference between rod cells and cone cells of our retina? 13. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of 14. Which one of the following pair of organs includes only the endocrine glands? 15. The blood calcium level is lowered by the deficiency of 16. Which one of the following is resistant to enzyme action? 17. What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance into ovule? 18. Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes ? 19. Unisexuality of flowers prevents 20. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic
division, the male germ cells differentiate into
the: 21. In human adult females oxytocin: 22. Which one of the following pairs of items correctly belongs to the category of organs mentioned against it? 23. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species 24. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify 25. In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and eukarya), wh 26. Select one of the following pairs of important features distinguishing Gnetum from Cycas and Pinus and showing affinitie 27. In which one of the following male and female gametophytes do not have free living independent existance? 28. Which one of the following is heterosporous? 29. Which one of the following in birds, indicates their reptilian ancestry? 30. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic morphological 31. Ascaris is characterized by 32. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect about menstruation? 33. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of Phylum Annelida? 34. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics? 35. Replum is present in the ovary of flower of 36. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig encloses a number of 37. Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the sead of 38. The fruit is chambered, developed from inferior ovary and has seeds with succulent testa in 39. Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed from bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary is 40. Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in plants storage organs. Which of the following five properties of starch (1 41. Cellulose is the major component of cell walls of 42. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase is 43. Modern detergents contain enzyme preparations of 44. Cry I endotoxins obtained from Bacillus
thuringiensis are effective against: 45. Human insulin is being commercially produced
from a transgenic species of: 46. Consider the following four statements (1-4) about
certain desert animals such as kangaroo-rat.
(i) They have dark colo 47. Quercus species are the dominant component in: 48. About 70% of total global carbon is found in: 49. Consider the following statements concerning
food chains:
(i) Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted
in greatly in 50. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in
nature is due to their: 51. The table below gives the populations
(in thousands) of ten species (A-J) in four areas
(a-d) consisting of the number o 52. Which one of the following is not observed in
biodiversity hotspots ? 53. World Summit on Sustainable Development
(2002) was held in: 54. Main objective of production/use of herbicide
resistant GM crops is to: 55. The length of different internodes in a culm of
sugarcane is variable because of: 56. Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop
from: 57. Earthworms have no skeleton but during
burrowing the anterior end becomes turgid and
acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is 58. Which one of the following is the true
description about an animal concerned? 59. Vacuole in a plant cell: 60. The two sub-units of ribosome remain united at a
critical ion level of : 61. In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded
exclusively in the: 62. Keeping in view the "fluid mosaic model" for
the structure of cell membrane, which one of the
following statements is co 63. Given below is a diagrammatic cross section
of a single loop of human cochlea.
Which one of the following options corre 64. A transgenic food crop which may help in
solving the problem of night blindness in
developing countries is 65. Which one of the following scientist's name is
correctly matched with the theory put fourth by
him? 66. Which extraembryonic membrane in humans
prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the
uterus? 67. Consider the statements given below regarding
contraception and answer as directed thereafter:
(i) Medical Termination 68. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their
modes of action (1-4) in achieving
contraception. Select their correct matc 69. Which one of the following conditions in
humans is correctly matched with its
chromosomal abnormality/linkage? 70. In the DNA molecule: 71. Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous
bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with
the category mentioned a 72. Which one of the following pairs of codons is
correctly matched with their function or the
signal for the particular ami 73. Polysome is formed by 74. Darwin's finches are a good example of – 75. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
are examples of: 76. Which one of the following is incorrect about
the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates
and microspheres) as envis 77. Match the disease in Column I with the
appropriate items (pathogen/ prevention/
treatment) in Column II.
.tg {border-c 78. Which one of the following is the correct
statement regarding the particular psychotropic
drug specified ? 79. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies
than the diploids. This is because: 80. Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful
microorganism for: 81. Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is
brought about by: 82. Which one of the following proved effective for
biological control of nematodal disese in plants? 83. Gel electrophoresis is used for: 84. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with
the plasmid vector became possible with:
Chemistry
1. In which of the following coordination entities the magnitude of $$\Delta $$o (CFSE in octahedral field) will be maximum 2. Which of the following complexes exhibits the highest paramagnetic behaviour?
where gly = glycine, en = ethylenediamin 3. How many moles of lead (II) chloride will be formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO and 3.2 g HCl ? 4. In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type
R $$-$$ Br + Cl$$-$$ $$\buildrel {DMF} \over
\longrightarrow $$ R$$-$$Cl + 5. Number of moles of MnO$$_4^{ - }$$ required to oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic medium will be 6. A strong base can abstract an $$\alpha $$-hydrogen from 7. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of 8. Acetophenone when reacted with a base, C2H5ONa, yields a stable compound which has the structure 9. In a reaction of aniline a coloured product C was obtained.
The structure of C would be 10. In DNA, the complimentary bases are 11. Which of the following is an amine hormone? 12. How many stereoisomers does this molecule have?
CH3CH$$=$$CHCH2CHBrCH3 13. On the basis of the following Eo values, the strongest oxidizing agent is
[Fe(CN)6]4$$-$$ $$ \to $$ [Fe(CN)6]3$$-$$ + e 14. Kohlrausch's law states that at 15. Standard free energies of formation (in kJ/mol) at 298 K are $$-$$237.2, $$-$$ 394.4 and $$-$$8.2 for H2O(l), CO2(g) and 16. The rate constants k1 and k2 for two different reactions are 1016 $$ \cdot $$ e$$-$$2000/T and 1015 $$ \cdot $$ e$$-$$ 17. The bromination of acetone that occurs in acid solution is represented by this equation.
CH3COCH3(aq) + Br2(aq) &n 18. The angular shape of ozone molecule (O3) consists of 19. The correct order of decreasing second ionisation enthalpy of Ti(22), V(23), Cr(24) and Mn(25) is 20. For the gas phase reaction,
PCl5(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
which of the following condition 21. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gave C, 38.71% and H, 9.67%. The empiri 22. What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measuread at 0oC and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely 1 L of propane gas (C3H8) measu 23. The measurement of the electron position is associated with an uncertainty in momentum, which is equal to 1 $$ \times $$ 24. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainty in velocity is 25. Which one of the following arrangements does not give the correct picture of the trends indicated against it ? 26. Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is increasing in them 27. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following triatomic species is 28. Which of the following are not state functions ?
(I) q + w (II) q
(III) w&n 29. Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2, Cl2 and HCl are 434, 242 and 431 kJ mol$$-$$1 respectively. Enthalpy of formation of H 30. The dissociation equilibrium of a gass AB2 can be represented as :
2AB2(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 2AB(g) + B2(g)
The d 31. If the concentration of OH$$-$$ ions in the reaction
Fe(OH)3(s) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ Fe3+(aq) + 3OH$$-$$(aq)
is decr 32. The value of equilibrium constant of the reaction
HI(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ $${1 \over 2}$$H2(g) + $${1 \over 2}$$I2 33. The values of for the reactions,
X $$\rightleftharpoons$$ Y + Z . . . .(i)
A $$\r 34. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH 3, 4 and 5 are mixed in a vessel. What will be the H+ ion concentration in t 35. Base strength of
is in the order of 36. Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic attack? 37. The stability of carbanions in the following.
is in the order of 38.
A (predominantly) is 39. In the hydrocarbon,
The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 are in the following sequence
Physics
1. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact and coaxial. The power of the combination is 2. An electric kettle takes 4 A current at 220 V. How much time will it take to boil 1 kg of water from temperature 20oC ? 3. A current of 3 amp. flows through the 2 $$\Omega $$ resistor shown in the circuit. The power dissipated in the 5 $$\Omeg 4. A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 cm of potentiometer wire, respectively with and without being short circui 5. A particle of mass m, charge Q and kinetic energy T enters a transverse uniform magnetic field of induction $$\overright 6. A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic forces on segments PS, SR a 7. A galvanometer of resistance 50 $$\Omega $$ is connected to a battery of 3 V along with a resistance of 2950 $$\Omega $$ 8. Curie temperature above which 9. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current of 2 ampere is passed through it, the resulting magnetic flux linked with 10. In an a.c. circuit the e.m.f. ($$\varepsilon $$) and the current
(i) at any instant are given respectively b 11. A circular disc of radius 0.2 meter is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction $${1 \over \pi }\left( {{{Wb} \ov 12. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity $$\varepsilon $$0 and permeability $$\mu $$0 is gi 13. A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by ten percent. Its new resistance and specific resistance become respe 14. A boy is trying to start a fire by focusing sunlight on a piece of paper using an equiconvex lens of focal length 10 cm. 15. A particle of mass 1 mg has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a velocity of 3 $$ \times $$ 106 m s$$-$$1. T 16. The work function of a surface of a photosensitive material is 6.2 eV. The wavelength of the incident radiation for whic 17. In the phenomenon of electric discharge through gases at low pressure, the coloured glow in the tube appears as a result 18. If M(A; Z), Mp and Mn denote the masses of the nucleus $${}_Z^AX,$$ proton and neutron respectively in units of u (1 u = 19. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is $$-$$ 13.6 eV. When its electron is in the first excited state, its excitati 20. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of the radiation that can be abs 21. If the lattice parameter for a crystalline structure is 3.6 $$\mathop A\limits^ \circ $$, then the atomic radius in fcc 22. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc to that of a circular ring, each of same mass and radius, around t 23. Which two of the following five physical parameters have the same dimensions ?
1. Energy density
2. &nb 24. A particle moves in a straight line with a constant acceleration. It changes its velocity from 10 ms$$-$$1 to 20 ms$$-$$ 25. The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration $${4 \over 3}$$m s$$-$$2, in th 26. A particle of mass m is projected with velocity v making an angle of 45o with the horizontal. When the particle lands on 27. A particle shows distance - time curve as given in this figure. The maximum instaneous velocity of the particle is aroun 28. A roller coaster is designed such that riders experience ''weightlessness'' as they go round the top of a hill whose ra 29. Sand is being dropped on a conveyer belt at the rate of M kg/s. The force necessary to keep the belt moving with a cons 30.
Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force only along the y-direction, the mag 31. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional forces are 1 32. A shell of mass 200 gm is ejected from a gun of mass 4 kg by an explosion that generates 1.05 kJ of energy. The initial 33. A thin rod of length L and mass M is bent at its midpoint into two halves so that the angle between them is 90o. The mo 34. On a new scale of temperature (which is linear) and called the W scale, the freezing and boiling points of water are 39o 35. At 10oC the value of the density of a fixed mass of an ideal gas divided by it pressure is x. At 110oC this ratio is 36. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat added, change in internal energy and the work done in a closed cyclic process 37. Two simple harmonic motions of angular frequency 100 and 1000 rad s$$-$$1 have the same displacement amplitude. The rati 38. A point performs simple harmonic oscillation of period T and the equation of motion is given by x = a sin($$\omega $$t + 39. Two periodic waves of intensities $$I$$1 and $$I$$2 pass through a region at the same time in the same direction. The su 40. The wave described by y = 0.25 sin(10$$\pi $$x $$-$$ 2$$\pi $$t), where x and y are in metres and t in seconds, is a wav 41. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance between the p 42. A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a charge +Q. The electric field at the centre O of the ring due to the charg 43. The electric potential at a point in free space due to charge Q coulomb is Q $$ \times $$ 1011 volts. The electric field 44.
In the circuit shown, the current through the 4 $$\Omega $$ resistor is 1 amp when the points P and M are connected to 45. If the error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 2%, then the error in the determination of volume of the sphere
1
AIPMT 2008
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Match the disease in Column I with the
appropriate items (pathogen/ prevention/
treatment) in Column II.
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| (A) Amoebiasis | (i) Treponema pallidium |
| (B) Diphtheria | (ii) Use only sterilized food |
| (C) Cholera | (iii) DPT Vaccine |
| (D) Syphilis | (iv) Use oval rehydration |
A
A = (ii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (iii)
B
A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
C
A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (iv)
D
A = (ii), B = (iii), C = (iv), D = (i)
2
AIPMT 2008
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which one of the following is the correct
statement regarding the particular psychotropic
drug specified ?
A
Hashish causes after thought perceptions
and hallucinations
B
Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed
emotions
C
Opium stimulates nervous system and
causes hallucinations
D
Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary
euphoria
3
AIPMT 2008
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies
than the diploids. This is because:
A
all mutations, whether dominant or recessive
are expressed in haploids
B
mutagens penetrate in haploids more
effectively than in diploids
C
haploids are reproductively more stable than
diploids
D
haploids are more abundant in nature than
diploids
4
AIPMT 2008
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful
microorganism for:
A
biological control of soil-borne plant
pathogens
B
reclamation of wastelands
C
gene transfer in higher plants
D
bioremediation of contaminated soils
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
84
Chemistry
39
Physics
45
More papers of NEET
NEET 2025
NEET 2024 (Re-Examination)
NEET 2024
NEET 2023 Manipur
NEET 2023
NEET 2022 Phase 2
NEET 2022 Phase 1
NEET 2021
NEET 2020 Phase 1
NEET 2019
NEET 2018
NEET 2017
NEET 2016 Phase 2
NEET 2016 Phase 1
AIPMT 2015
AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper
AIPMT 2014
NEET 2013 (Karnataka)
NEET 2013
AIPMT 2012 Mains
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
AIPMT 2011 Mains
AIPMT 2011 Prelims
AIPMT 2010 Mains
AIPMT 2010 Prelims
AIPMT 2009
AIPMT 2008
AIPMT 2007
AIPMT 2006
AIPMT 2005
AIPMT 2004
AIPMT 2003
AIPMT 2002
AIPMT 2001
AIPMT 2000
NEET
Papers
2014
2009
2008
2007
2006
2005
2004
2003
2002
2001
2000