Biology
1. Species are considered as 2. Biosystematics aims at 3. Phenetic classification of organisms is based on 4. Chromosomes in a bactertial cell can be 1 $$-$$ 3 in number and 5. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size 6. Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct? 7. Viruses are no more ''alive'' than isolated chromosomes because 8. In which kingdom would you classify the archaea and nitrogen-fixing organisms, if the five-kingdom system of classificat 9. Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers? 10. Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is an advanced feature because it shows 11. Plants reproducing by spores such as mosses and ferns are grouped under the general term 12. Which one pair of examples will correctly represent the grouping spermatophyta according to one of the schemes of classi 13. Bartholin's glands are situated 14. The chief advantage of encystment of an Amoeba is 15. Systemic heart refers to 16. Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which are best described as 17. During the life-cycle, Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke) infects its intermediate host and primary host at the following l 18. Ommatidia serve the purpose of photoreception in 19. Which one of the following is a matching pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon it exhibits? 20. Given below are four matchings of an animal and its kind of respiratory organ :
(A) Silver fish & 21. Juicy hair-like structures observed in the lemon fruit develop from 22. The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as 23. Stomata of a plant open due to 24. Boron in green plants assists in 25. Gray spots of oat are caused by deficiency of 26. Which element is located at the centre of the porphyrin ring in chlorophyll? 27. In sugarcane plant 14CO2 is fixed to malic acid, in which the enzyme that fixes CO2 is 28. Stomata of CAM plants 29. Which one of the following is wrong in relation to photorespiration? 30. Which fractions of the visible spectrum of solar radiations are primarily absorbed by carotenoids of the higher plants? 31. Which one of the following concerns photophosphorylation? 32. In alcohol fermentation 33. In which one of the following do the two names refer to one and same thing? 34. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone 35. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by 36. Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N.tabacum flowers only during short days. If raised in the labora 37. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? 38. During prolonged fastings, in what sequence are the following organic compounds used up by the body? 39. The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that an artificial pacemaker is to be gr 40. Bundle of His is a network of 41. In the ABO system of blood groups, if both antigens are present but no antibody, the blood group of the individual would 42. If Henle's loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which one of the following is to be expected? 43. What used to be described as Nissl's granules in a nerve cell are now identified as 44. Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency? 45. In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to 46. During embryonic development, the establishment
of polarity along anterior/posterior, dorsal/ventral
or medial/lateral a 47. Test tube baby means a baby born when 48. Two opposite forces operate in the growth and
development of every population. One of them
relates to the ability to rep 49. Which one of the following traits of garden pea
studied by Mendel was a recessive feature ? 50. The genes controlling the seven pea characters
studied by Mendel are now known to be located
on how many different chrom 51. Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes
or phenotypes in which the sources of the
gametes are reversed in one cro 52. Pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in
human males are examples of : - 53. In Drosophila, the sex is determined by : - 54. Down's syndrome is caused by an extra copy of
chromosome number 21. What percentage of
offspring produced by an affected 55. Which one of the following conditions though
harmful in itself, is also a potential saviour from
a mosquito borne infect 56. During transcription, the DNA site at which
RNA polymerase binds is called :- 57. In the genetic code dictionary, how many
codons are used to code for all the 20 essential
amino acids : - 58. What does "lac" refer to in what we call the lac
operon ? 59. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a
GTP molecule is needed in : - 60. What would happen if in a gene encoding a
polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon
(UAU) is mutated to UAA ? 61. Which one of the following triplet codes, is
correctly matched with its specificity for an
amino acid in protein synthes 62. Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to
the : - 63. Convergent evolution is illustrated by : - 64. Which one of the following sequences was
proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic
evolution ? 65. Random genetic drift in a population probably
results from 66. Industrial melanism is an example of : - 67. In a random mating population in equilibrium,
which of the following brings about a change in
gene frequency in a non-di 68. Darwin in his 'Natural Selection Theory' did not
believe in any role of which one of the following
in organic evolution 69. Which one of the following is categorised under
living fossils ? 70. Which one of the following describes correctly
the homologous structures ? 71. Carcinoma refers to : - 72. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to
foetus across placenta or through mother's milk
to the infant is categorise 73. Christmas disease is another name for : - 74. Which of the following plants are used as green
manure in crop fields and in sandy soils ? 75. Maximum application of animal cell culture
technology today is in the production of : - 76. During anaerobic digestion of organic waste,
such as in producing biogas, which one of the
following is left undergraded 77. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide
sequence) of mt-DNA and Y chromosomes were
considered for the study of human 78. Which one of the following bacteria has found
extensive use in genetic engineering work in
plants ? 79. ELISA is used to detect viruses, wherethe key reagent is :- 80. Mycorrhiza is an example of :- 81. Which group of vertebrates comprises the
highest number of endangered species ? 82. Which endangered animal is the source of the
world's finest, lightest, warmest and most
expensive wool - the shahtoosh ? 83. Fluoride pollutions mainly affects : - 84. Escherichia coli is used as an indicator
organism to determine pollution of water with ;- 85. The apical meristem of the root is present 86. In which one of the following nitrogen is not a
constituent ? 87. The aleurone layer in maize grain is specially
rich in :- 88. Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the : - 89. Diffuse porous wood is characteristics of those
plants which are growing in : - 90. The cells of the quiescent centre are characterised
by : - 91. Which one of the following contains the largest
quantity of extracellular material ? 92. Cellular totipotency is demonstrated by :- 93. Coconut milk factor is
Chemistry
1. The velocity of Planck's constant is 6.63 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$34 J s.
The velocity of light is 3.0 $$ \times $$ 108 m 2. The ions O2$$-$$, F$$-$$, Na+, Mg2+ and Al3+ are isoelectronic. Their ionic radii show 3. Which one of the following statements is not correct for sigma- and pi- bonds formed between two carbon atoms? 4. For the reaction,
C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) $$ \to $$ 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)
at constant temperature, $$\Delta $$H $$-$$ $$\Delt 5. The densities of graphite and diamond at 298 K are 2.25 and 3.31 g cm$$-$$3, respectively. If the standard free energy d 6. Formation of solution from two components can be considered as
(i) Pure solvent $$ \to $$ separated solvent m 7. What is the entropy change (in J K$$-$$1 mol$$-$$1) when one mole of ice is converted into water at 0oC? (The enthalpy c 8. For which one of the following equations is $$\Delta $$Horeact equal to $$\Delta $$Hof for the product ? 9. The molar heat capacity of water at constant pressure, C, is 75 J K$$-$$1 mol$$-$$1. When 1.0 kJ of heat is supplied to 10. The equilibrium constants of the following are
N2 + 3H2 $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 2NH3; K1
N2 11. Which one of the following statements is not true? 12. In Haber process 30 litres of dihydrogen and 30 litres of dinitrogen were taken for reaction which yielded only 50% of t 13. The reaction quotient (Q) for the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 2NH3(g) is given by $$Q = {{{{\left[ 14. The solubility product of AgI at 25oC is 1.0 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$16 mol2 L$$-$$2. The solubility of AgI in 10$$-$$4 N so 15. Name of the compound given below is
16. Which one of the following orders of acid strength is correct ? 17. The compound
on reaction with NaIO4 in the presence of KMnO4 gives 18. Which one of the following is a free-radical substitution reaction ? 19. The correct order of reactivity towards the electrophilic substitution of the compounds aniline (I), benzene (II) and ni 20. Which of the following pairs of compounds are enantiomers? 21. The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions
SO3$${_3^{2 - }}$$, S2O$${_4^{2 - }}$$ and S2O$${_6^{2 - }}$$ follow t 22. The structure of H2O2 is 23. In this reaction :
CH3CHO + HCN $$ \to $$ CH3CH(OH)CN
  24. $$A$$ and $$B$$ in the following reactions are :
25. When $$m$$-chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with 50% KOH solution, the product(s) obtained is (are) 26. In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid yielded a product C.
Product $$C$$ would be 27. The final product C, obtained in this reaction
would be 28. Glycolysis is 29. Vitamin B12 contains 30. Chargaff's rule states that in an organism 31. Phospholipids are esters of glycerol with 32. Acrilan is a hard, horny and a high melting material. Which one of the following represents its structure? 33. Which one of the following monomers gives the polymer neoprene on polymerization? 34. The pyknometric density of sodium chloride crystal is 2.165 $$ \times $$ 103 kg m$$-$$3 while its X-ray density is 2.178 35. The e.m.f. of a Daniell cell at 298 K is E1.
When the concentration of ZnSO4 is 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 is 0.01 M, the 36. On the basis of the information available from the reaction,
4/3Al + O2 $$ \to $$ 2/3Al2O3, $$\Delta $$G = 37. The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) of a chemical reaction is written in terms of Arrhenius equation, $$k = 38. If the rate of the reaction is equal to the rate constant, the order of the reaction is 39. The reaction A $$ \to $$ B follows first order kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to produce 0.6 mole of B is 1 40. The activation energy for a simple chemical reaction A $$\rightleftharpoons$$ B is E$$a$$ in forward direction.
The acti 41. According to the adsorption theory of catalysis, the speed of the reaction increases because 42. Which one of the following compounds is not a protonic acid? 43. The method of zone refining of metals is based on the principle of 44. Which one of the following characteristics of the transition metals is associated with their catalytic activity? 45. The basic character of the transition metal monoxides follows the order
(Atomic no's. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Fe = 26) 46. The correct order of ionic radii of Y3+, La3+, Eu3+ and Lu3+ is
(Atomic nos. Y = 39, La = 57, Eu = 63, Lu = 71) 47. The radioistope, tritium ($${}_1^3$$H) has a half-life of 12.3 years. If the initial amount of tritium is 32 mg, how man 48. The number of unpaired electrons in the complex ion [CoF6]3$$-$$ is
(Atomic no. : Co = 27) 49. Among the following which is not the $$\pi $$-bonded organometallic compound?
Physics
1. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the last t seconds of its ascent is 2. A man throws balls with the same speed vertically upwards one after the other at an interval of 2 seconds. What should b 3. The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to their vector differences. In that case, the forces 4. A particle moves along a circle of radius $$\left( {{{20} \over \pi }} \right)$$ m with constants tangential acceleratio 5. A man weight 80 kg. He stands on a weighting scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 m 6. A monkey of mass 20 kg is holding a vertical rope. The rope will not break when a mass of 25 kg is suspended from it bu 7. When a long spring is stretched by 2 cm, its potential energy is U. If the spring is stretched by 10 cm, the potential e 8. A stationary particle explodes into two particles of masses m1 and m2 which move in opposite directions with velocities 9. A ball rolls without slipping. The radius of gyration of the ball about an axis passing through its centre of mass is K. 10. A stone is tied to a string of length $$l$$ and is whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of the string as the 11. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls without slipping down an inclined plane of length L and height h. What is 12. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with a constant angular velocity $$\omega $$. Fou 13. Two spheres of masses m and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between them is F. The space around the ma 14. The acceleration due to gravity on the planet A is 9 times the acceleration due to gravity on planet B. A man jumps to a 15. A body of mass m is placed on earth's surface which is taken from earth surface to a height of h = 3R, then change in gr 16. Consider a compound slab consisting of two different materials having equal thicknesses and thermal conductivities K and 17. An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between 227oC and 127oC. It absorbs 6 kcal at the height temperature 18. Which one of the following statements is true for the speed v and the acceleration a of a particle executing simple harm 19. The potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator when the particle is half way to its end point is 20. A particle of mass m oscillates with simple harmonic motion between points x1 and x2, the equilibrium position being O. 21. In case of a forced vibration, the resonance peak becomes very sharp when the 22. The time period of mass suspended from a spring is T. If the spring is cut into four equal parts and the same mass is su 23. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed 1/5th of the speed of sound. The wavelength and freq 24. Three capacitors each of capacity 4 $$\mu $$F are to be connected in such a way that the effective capacitance is $$6\mu 25. A charge q is located at the centre of a cube. The electric flux through any face is 26. Two 220 volt, 100 watt bulbs are connected first in series and then in parallel. Each time the combination is connected 27. Fuse wire is a wire of 28. In a Wheatstone's bridge all the four arms have equal resistance R. If the resistance of the galvanometer arm is also R, 29. An electric kettle has two heating coils. When one of the coils is connected to an a.c. source, the water in the kettle 30. A long solenoid carrying a current producess a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is doubled and the number 31. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a firection perpendicular to it. Then the 32. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves 33. According to Curie's law, the magnetic susceptibility of a substance at an absolute temperature $$T$$ is proportional to 34. A bar magnet is oscillating in the Earth's magnetic field with a period T. What happens to its period and motion if its 35. Which of the following rays are not electromagnetic waves ? 36. We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. Which one of the following statements is true? 37. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of the lens. Then its focal 38. An equiconvex lens is cut into two halves along (i) XOX' and (ii) YOY' as shown in the figure. Let $$f,f',$$ $$f''$$ 39. A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point source of light 1 m away. When the source is shifted to 2 m then 40. J.J. Thomson's cathode-ray tube experiment demonstrated that 41. An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The Coulomb force $$\overrig 42. Solar energy is mainly caused due to 43. The volume occupied by an atom is greater than the volume of the nucleus by a factor of about 44. A sample of radioactive element has a mass of 10 g at an instant t = 0. The approximate mass of this element in the samp 45. The mass of proton is 1.0073 u and that of neutron is 1.0087 u (u = atomic mass unit). The binding energy of $${}_2^4$$ 46. The mass number of a nucleus is 47. In which of the following systems will the radius of the first orbit (n = 1) be minimum ? 48. A nuclear reaction given by
ZXA $$ \to $$ z+1YA + $$-$$1e0 + $$\overline v $$ represents 49. Reverse bias applied to a junction diode 50. A n-p-n transistor conducts when 51. If a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from 50 Hz mains, the fundamental frequency in the ripple will be 52. Barrier potential of a p-n junction diode does not depened on
1
AIPMT 2003
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
What used to be described as Nissl's granules in a nerve cell are now identified as
A
cell metabolites
B
fat granules
C
ribosomes
D
mitochondria.
2
AIPMT 2003
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which one of the following pairs correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency?
A
Relaxin $$-$$ Gigantism
B
Prolactin $$-$$ Cretinism
C
Parathyroid hormone $$-$$ Tetany
D
Insulin $$-$$ Diabetes insipidus
3
AIPMT 2003
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to
A
only the wall of the spoeangium
B
both wall and the sporogenous cells
C
wall and the tapetum
D
only tapetum and sporogenous cells.
4
AIPMT 2003
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Out of Syllabus
During embryonic development, the establishment
of polarity along anterior/posterior, dorsal/ventral
or medial/lateral axis is called : -
A
Organizer phenomena
B
Pattern formation
C
Axis formation
D
Anamorphosis
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
93
Chemistry
49
Physics
52
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