Biology
1. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Sickle cell anaemia and haemophilia are autosomal dominant traits.
Stateme 2. Which stage of meiosis can last for months or years in the oocytes of some vertebrates? 3. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) 4. Give the correct descending order of organisms with reference to their estimated number found in Amazon forest.
(a) Plan 5. In lac operon, z gene codes for 6. The 5-C compound formed during TCA cycle is 7. In meiosis, crossing over and exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes are catalyzed by the enzyme 8. All successions irrespective of the habitat proceed to which type of climax community? 9. When a carrier protein facilitates the movement of two molecules across the membrane in same direction, it is called 10. When one CO2 molecule is fixed as one molecule of triose phosphate, which of the following photochemically made, high en 11. The ability of plants to follow different pathways in response to environment leading to formation of different kinds of 12. Match List-I with List-II :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:so 13. Interfascicular cambium is present between 14. Which of the following growth regulators is an adenine derivative? 15. The chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by 16. Which of the following statement is not correct? 17. The Phenomenon by which the undividing parenchyma cells start to divide mitotically during plant tissue culture is calle 18. Match List-I with List-II
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:soli 19. The residual persistent part which forms the perisperm in the seeds of beet is 20. The World Summit on sustainable development held in 2002 in Johannesburg, South Africa pledged for 21. The type of tissue commonly found in the fruit wall of nuts is : 22. The pioneer species in a hydrarch succession are 23. Given below are two statements
Statement I : DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation only in one direction, that is 5' → 24. The species that come to appear in bare area are called 25. Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during secondary growth takes place in cells of 26. Match List - I with List - II.
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-style 27. To ensure that only the desired pollens fall on the stigma in artificial hybridization process
(a) the female flower bud 28. Match List - I with List - II :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-styl 29. The number of time(s) decarboxylation of isocitrate occurs during single TCA cycle is 30. Match List-I with List-II
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:soli 31. Separation of DNA fragments is done by a technique known as 32. In general the egg apparatus of embryo sac in angiosperm consists of 33. The Floral Diagram represents which one of the following families?
34. Primary proteins are also called as polypeptides because : 35. Match List-I with List-II:
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:sol 36. Which type of substance would face difficulty to pass through the cell membrane? 37. What is the expected percentage of F2 progeny with yellow and inflated pod in dihybrid cross experiment involving pea pl 38. Match List - I with List - II :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-styl 39. If a female individual is with small round head, furrowed tongue, partially open mouth and broad palm with characteristi 40. Read the following statements and identify the characters related to the alga shown in the diagram :
(a) It is a member 41. Match the List-I with List-II :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-styl 42. The enzyme (a) is needed for isolating genetic material from plant cells and enzyme (b) for isolating genetic material f 43. Identify the correct sequence of events during Prophase I of meiosis:
(a) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
(b) Chromos 44. Which of the following pair represents free living nitrogen fixing aerobic bacteria? 45. Frugivorous birds are found in large numbers in tropical forests mainly because of : 46. Identify the correct statements regarding chemiosmotic hypothesis:
(a) Splitting of the water molecule takes place on th 47. Match List-I with List-II :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:so 48. Which of the following animals has three chambered heart? 49. Which of the following types of epithelium is present in the bronchioles and Fallopian tubes? 50. Which of the following is not an Intra Uterine Device? 51. Match List-I with List-II
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:soli 52. Which of the following reasons is mainly responsible for graft rejection in transplantation of organs? 53. Bivalent or Tetrad formation is a characteristic feature observed during 54. Give below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): 55. Choose the correct statement about a muscular tissue 56. Identify the region of human brain which has pneumotaxic centre that alters respiratory rate by reducing the duration of 57. The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis is cal 58. Select the incorrect match regarding the symbols used in the Pedigree analysis: 59. If the pH in lysosomes is increased to alkaline, what will be the outcome? 60. According to the sliding filament theory: 61. Pathogenic bacteria gain resistance to antibiotics due to changes in their : 62. Panspermia, an idea that is still a favourite for some astronomers, means: 63. Why CNG is considered better fuel than diesel?
(a) It can not be adulterated.
(b) It takes less time to fill the fuel ta 64. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to vital capacity?
(a) It includes ERV, TV and IRV
(b) Total 65. How many secondary spermatocytes are required to form 400 million spermatozoa? 66. Mad cow disease in cattle and Cr Jacob disease in humans are due to infection by ______. 67. Arrange the components of mammary gland. (from proximal to distal).
(a) Mammary duct (b) Lactiferous duct
(c) Alveoli (d 68. Western Ghats have a large number of plants and animal species that are not found anywhere else. Which of the following 69. Match List-I with List-II regarding the organs of Cockroach:
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{b 70. Two butterfly species are competing for the same nectar of a flower in a garden. To survive and coexist together, they m 71. Choose the incorrect enzymatic rection: 72. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): 73. Choose the correct statements:
(a) Bones support and protect softer tissues and organs
(b) Weight bearing function is se 74. If DNA contained sulfur instead of phosphorus and proteins contained phosphorus instead of sulfur, what would have been 75. Select the incorrect statements with respect to Cyclostomes:
(a) They lack scales and paired fins.
(b) They have circula 76. A unique vascular connection between the digestive tract and liver is called______. 77. Milk of transgenic ‘Cow Rosie’ was nutritionally more balanced product for human babies than natural cow milk because it 78. Gout is a type of disorder which leads to: 79. Which of the following methods is not commonly used for introducing foreign DNA into the plant cell? 80. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Amino acids have a property of ionizable nature of $$-$$NH2 and $$-$$COOH 81. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) 82. With respect to metaphase, which of the following statements is incorrect? 83. Against the codon 5' UAC 3', what would be the sequence of anticodon on tRNA? 84. Arrange the following formed elements in the decreasing order of their abundance in blood in humans:
(a) Platelets (b) N 85. Which of the following are true about the taxonomical aid 'key'?
(a) Keys are based on the similarities and dissimilarit 86. A normal girl, whose mother is haemophilic marries a male with no ancestral history of haemophilia. What will be the pos 87. In the enzyme which catalyses the breakdown of:
H2O2 $$\to$$ H2O + O2
the prosthetic group is : 88. IUDs are small objects made up of plastic or copper that are inserted in the uterine cavity. Which of the following stat 89. Select the correct statement regarding mutation theory of evolution. 90. Excretion in cockroach is performed by all, EXCEPT: 91. Select the correct statements.
(a) Angiotensin II activates the cortex of adrenal gland to release aldosterone.
(b) Aldo 92. If A and C make 30% and 20% of DNA, respectively, what will be the percentage composition of T and G? 93. Refer to the following statements for agarose-gel electrophoresis:
(a) Agarose is a natural polymer obtained from sea-we 94. Match List-I with List - II :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-style: 95. Match List - I with List - II :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-styl
Chemistry
1. Match List-I with List-II :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:so 2. The density of the solution is 2.15 g mL$$-$$1, then mass of 2.5 mL solution in correct significant figures is : 3. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) 4. Two half cell reactions are given below.
$$C{o^{3 + }} + {e^ - } \to C{o^{2 + }},\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,\,E_{C{o^{2 + }}/C{o^{3 5. Match List-I with List-II :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:so 6. The correct order of first ionization enthalpy for the given four elements is :
7. Predict the order of reactivity of the following four isomers towards SN2 reaction.
(I) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
(II) CH3CH2CH(Cl) 8. Match List-I with List-II :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:so 9. Which of the following reactions is a part of the large scale industrial preparation of nitric acid? 10. Na2B4O7 $$\buildrel {heat} \over
\longrightarrow $$ X + NaBO2
in the above reaction the product "X" is : 11. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from 1 L to 10 L volume. $$\Delta$$U for this process is :
(U 12. Match List-I with List-II :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:so 13. 0.01 M acetic acid solution is 1% ionised, then pH of this acetic acid solution is : 14. The half life of a first order reaction is 2000 years. If the concentration after 8000 years is 0.02 M, then the initial 15. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is :
16. The decreasing order of boiling points of the following alkanes is :
(a) heptane
(b) butane
(c) 2-methylbutane
(d) 2-met 17. Decrease in size from left to right in actinoid series is greater and gradual than that in lanthanoid series due to 18. Which of the following reactions is not an example for nucleophilic addition-elimination reaction? 19. The product formed from the following reaction sequence is
20. Fluorine is a stronger oxidising agent than chlorine because :
(a) F-F bond has a low enthalpy of dissociation.
(b) Fluo 21. KH value for some gases at the same temperature 'T' are given :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg t 22. Which of the following reactions is a decomposition redox reaction? 23. What is the hybridization shown by C1 and C2 carbons, respectively in the given compound?
OHC $$-$$ CH = CH $$-$$ CH2COO 24. Match the reagents (List-I) with the product (List-II) obtained from phenol.
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spac 25. The correct order of bond angles in the following compounds/species is : 26. Match List-I with List-II :
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:so 27. If first ionization enthalpies of elements X and Y are 419 kJ mol$$-$$1 and 590 kJ mol$$-$$1, respectively and second io 28. The incorrect statement about denaturation of proteins is : 29. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) 30. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation? 31. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Cr2+ is oxidising and Mn3+ is reducing in nature.
Statement II : Sc3+ com 32. Kp for the following reaction is 3.0 at 1000 K.
CO2(g) + C(s) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 2CO(g)
What will be the value of Kc 33. A vessel contains 3.2 g of dioxygen gas at STP (273.15 K and 1 atm pressure). The gas is now transferred to another vess 34. Which one of the following reaction sequence is incorrect method to prepare phenol? 35. For a chemical reaction
4A + 3B $$\to$$ 6C + 9D
Rate of formation of C is 6 $$\times$$ 10$$-$$2 mol L$$-$$1 s$$-$$1 and 36. Standard electrode potential for the cell with cell reaction
Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) $$\to$$ Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
is 1.1 V. Calcula 37. The products A and B in the following reaction sequence are :
38. The incorrect method for the synthesis of alkenes is 39. When electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 300 nm falls on the surface of a metal, electrons are emitted with the kine 40. What fraction of Fe exists as Fe(III) in Fe0.96O ?
(Consider Fe0.96O to be made up of Fe(II) and Fe(III) only) 41. The incorrect method to synthesize benzaldehyde is
Physics
1. An energy of 484 J is spent in increasing the speed of a flywheel from 60 rpm to 360 rpm. The moment of inertia of the f 2. Let R1 be the radius of the second stationary orbit and R2 be the radius of the fourth stationary orbit of an electron i 3. During a cloudy day, a primary and a secondary rainbow may be created, then the : 4. The reciprocal of resistance is : 5. Two copper vessels A and B have the same base area but of different shapes. A takes twice the volume of water as that B 6. Match List-I with List-II
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:soli 7. The distance covered by a body of mass 5 g having linear momentum 0.3 kg m/s in 5 s is : 8. The distance between the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor is doubled and the area of each plate is halved. If C 9. A closely packed coil having 1000 turns has an average radius of 62.8 cm. If current carried by the wire of the coil is 10. The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by $$\overrightarrow B = 3 \times {10^{ - 8}}\cos (1.6 \tim 11. The restoring force of a spring with a block attached to the free end of the spring is represented by 12. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) 13. A cricket ball is thrown by a player at a speed of 20 m/s in a direction 30$$^\circ$$ above the horizontal. The maximum 14. Given below are two statements
Statement I : In an a.c circuit, the current through a capacitor leads the voltage across 15. A cell of emf 4 V and internal resistance 0.5 $$\Omega$$ is connected to a 7.5 $$\Omega$$ external resistance. The termi 16. An ideal gas follows a process described by the equation $$P{V^2} = C$$ from the initial $$({P_1},\,{V_1},\,{T_1})$$ to 17. The shape of the magnetic field lines due to an infinite long, straight current carrying conductor is 18.
Identify the equivalent logic gate represented by the given circuit 19. The light rays having photons of energy 4.2 eV are falling on a metal surface having a work function of 2.2 eV. The stop 20. Identify the function which represents a non-periodic motion. 21. An inductor of inductance 2 mH is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz ac source. Let the inductive reactance in the circuit is X 22. The ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field and electric field intensity of a plane electromagnetic wave in free sp 23. The threshold frequency of a photoelectric metal is v0. If light of frequency 4v0 is incident on this metal, then the ma 24. The equivalent resistance of the infinite network given below is :
25. If the screen is moved away from the plane of the slits in a Young's double slit experiment, then the : 26. If $$\overrightarrow F = 2\widehat i + \widehat j - \widehat k$$ and $$\overrightarrow r = 3\widehat i + 2\widehat j - 27. The physical quantity that has the same dimensional formula as pressure is 28. The effective capacitances of two capacitors are 3 $$\mu$$F and 16 $$\mu$$F, when they are connected in series and paral 29. After passing through a polariser a linearly polarised light of intensity I is incident on an analyser making an angle o 30. In the diagram shown, the normal reaction force between 2 kg and 1 kg is (Consider the surface, to be smooth) :
(Given g 31. The incorrect statement about the property of a Zener diode is : 32. A gravitational field is present in a region and a mass is shifted from A to B through different paths as shown. If W1, 33. A standard filament lamp consumes 100 W when connected to 200 V ac mains supply. The peak current through the bulb will 34. The terminal velocity of a copper ball of radius 5 mm falling through a tank of oil at room temperature is 10 cm s$$-$$1 35. In a gravitational field, the gravitational potential is given by, $$V = - {K \over x}$$ (J/Kg). The gravitational fiel 36. The percentage error in the measurement of g is : (Given that $$g = {{4{\pi ^2}L} \over {{T^2}}}$$, $$L = (10\, \pm \,0. 37. Two very long, straight, parallel conductors A and B carry current of 5 A and 10 A respectively and are at a distance of 38. The magnetic field on the axis of a circular loop of radius 100 cm carrying current $$I = \sqrt 2 \,A$$, at point 1 m aw 39. Two rods one made of copper and other made of steel of same length and same cross sectional area are joined together. Th 40. The ratio of Coulomb's electrostatic force to the gravitational force between an electron and a proton separated by some 41. The position-time (x - t) graph for positive acceleration is 42. Six charges +q, $$-$$q, +q, $$-$$q, +q, and $$-$$q are fixed at the corners of a hexagon of side d as shown in the figur 43. An astronomical refracting telescope is being used by an observer to observe planets in normal adjustment. The focal len 44. The magnetic flux linked to a circular coil of radius R is
$$\phi = 2{t^3} + 4{t^2} + 2t + 5$$ Wb
The magnitude of indu 45. Three vessels of equal capacity have gases at the same temperature and pressure. The first vessel contains helium (monoa 46. An organ pipe filled with a gas at 27$$^\circ$$C resonates at 400 Hz in its fundamental mode. If it is filled with the s 47. The sliding contact C is at one fourth of the length of the potentiometer wire (AB) from A as shown in the circuit diagr
1
NEET 2022 Phase 2
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Select the correct statement regarding mutation theory of evolution.
A
Large differences due to mutations arise gradually in a population
B
This theory was proposed by Alfred Wallace
C
Variations are small directional changes
D
Single step large mutation is a cause of speciation
2
NEET 2022 Phase 2
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Excretion in cockroach is performed by all, EXCEPT:
A
Hepatic caeca
B
Urecose glands
C
Malpighian tubules
D
Fat body
3
NEET 2022 Phase 2
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Select the correct statements.
(a) Angiotensin II activates the cortex of adrenal gland to release aldosterone.
(b) Aldosterone leads to increase in blood pressure.
(c) ANF acts as a check on renin-angiotensin mechanism.
(d) ADH causes vasodilation.
(e) Vasopressin is released from adenohypophysis.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A
(a), (b) and (c) only
B
(a), (b) and (e) only
C
(c), (d) and (e) only
D
(b), (c) and (d) only
4
NEET 2022 Phase 2
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
If A and C make 30% and 20% of DNA, respectively, what will be the percentage composition of T and G?
A
T : 20%, G : 20%
B
T : 20%, G : 30%
C
T : 30%, G : 20%
D
T : 30%, G : 30%
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
95
Chemistry
41
Physics
47
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