Biology
1. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? 2. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during polli 3. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is : 4. The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram c 5. Diadelphous stamens are found in 6. Gemmae are present in 7. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is : 8. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survi 9. During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out : 10. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as 11. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen? 12. Plants follow different pathways in response to environment of phases of life to form different kinds of structures. Thi 13. The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is 14. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is refe 15. Match List-I with List-II.
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:soli 16. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere? 17. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is 18. Which of the following statements is not correct? 19. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reverse food material? 20. When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is known a 21. Match List-I with List-II.
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:soli 22. Match List-I with List-II .
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:sol 23. Complete the flow chart on central dogma. 24. In the equation GPP - R = NPPR represents : 25. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as : 26. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field 27. Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants? 28. Amensalism can be represented as : 29. Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)? 30. Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)? 31. Match List-I with List-II.
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:soli 32. Which of the following statements is correct? 33. In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert, e represents 34. In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after relea 35. Match List-I with List-II.
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:soli 36. Match List-I with List-II.
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:soli 37. Match Column-I with Column-II Select the correct answer from the options given below. 38. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes? 39. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 40. Now-a-days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its compl 41. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as 42. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 43. Plasmid pBR322 has Pst I restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is 44. Identify the correct statement. 45. Select the correct pair. 46. Match List-I with List-II
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:solid 47. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on : 48. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase 49. Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli. 50. Match the following :
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:solid;bor 51. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature? 52. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it? 53. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are : 54. Read the following statements(1) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.(2) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate an 55. In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny wil 56. Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle? 57. Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae? 58. During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then wh 59. Match List-I with List-II.
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:soli 60. Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD? 61. The centriole undergoes duplication during : 62. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach? 63. Veneral diseases can spread through :(1) Using sterile needles(2) Transfusion of blood from infected person(3) Infector 64. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones? 65. Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipients". This is due to : 66. The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are 67. A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is : 68. Identify the incorrect pair 69. With regard to insulin choose correct options.(1) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.(2) The insulin produced by 70. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal m 71. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein? 72. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C formation is produced by : 73. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins? 74. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which o 75. Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of tr 76. Match List-I with List-II.
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:soli 77. Match List-I with List-II
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:solid 78. Following are the statements with reference to 'lipids'.(1) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty 79. Match List-I with List-II
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:solid 80. During muscular contraction which of the following events occur?(1) 'H' zone disappears(2) 'A' band widens(3) 'I' band r 81. Match List-I with List-II.
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:soli 82. Assertion (A) : A person goes to high altitude and experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like breathing difficul 83. Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans? 84. Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy? 85. Match List-I with List-II
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.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:solid 86. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into 87. Which one of the following statements about histones is wrong? 88. Statement I : The codon 'AUG' codes for methionine and phenylalanine.Statement II : 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code for 89. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of 90. Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm.(1) It serves as a covering for mouth.(2) It helps to open cr
Chemistry
1. The incorrect statement among the following is : 2. Given below are two statements :Statement I :Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics.Statemen 3. Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI.Statement II : As t 4. Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole of ideal gas? 5. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of electrons around the central atom, respective 6. The major product of the following chemical reaction is : 7. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm2 mol$$-$$1 respect 8. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of 9. Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction? Choose the right option. 10. The compound which shows metamerism is : 11. Match List - I with List - II :
List - I
List - II
(a)
$$PC{l_5}$$
(i)
Squ 12. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali. 13. Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of : 14. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is : 15. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is bas 16. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirica 17. The pKb of dimethyl amine and pKa of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct option for the pH 18. The correct structure of 2, 6-dimethyl-dec-4-ene is 19. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1), 10 g of urea (CH4 20. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C-X' bond is : 21. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is : 22. Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them. 23. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction? 24. For a reaction, A $$\to$$ B, enthalpy of reaction is $$-$$4.2 kJ mol$$-$$1 and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol$$-$$ 25. Consider the above reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical. 26. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45$$^\circ$$C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 27. Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 28. The intermediate compound 'X' in the following chemical reaction is : 29. The product formed in the following chemical reaction is : 30. The slope of Arrhenius plot $$\left( {\ln \,k\,v/s{1 \over T}} \right)$$ of first order reactino is $$-$$5 $$\times$$ 10 31. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is : 32. From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair? 33. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm2 mol$$-$$1. What is the dissociation constant of acetic acid? C 34. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature? 35. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I
List-II
(a)
$${[Fe{(CN)_6}]^{3 - }}$$
(i)
36. In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicted again
Physics
1. The E and G respectively denote energy and gravitational constant, then $${E \over G}$$ has the dimensions of : 2. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are connected in series to an 3. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency 'n', the frequency of its potential energy is : 4. A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross section. The var 5. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding per nucleon of unfragmente 6. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field $$\overrightarrow E $$ in the space between the plates. If the d 7. The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600nm, when it 8. Polar molecules are the molecules : 9. A capacitor of capacitance 'C', is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given by V = V0sin$$\omega$$tThe displace 10. A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire Main scale reading : 0 mmCircular 11. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is $$\sqrt 3 $$ 12. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V 13. A particle is released from height S from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three time 14. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-secti 15. Water falls from a height of 60m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10% 16. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of 105 m/s pa 17. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer.(A) A Zener diode is connected in reverse 18. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by i 19. The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An ex 20. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move? 21. A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a 22. The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radiu 23. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '$$\lambda$$' is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work function. 24. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since : 25. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge densities 26. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x-direction, which one of the following combination gives the correct po 27. A cup of coffee cools from 90$$^\circ$$C to 80$$^\circ$$C in t minutes, when the room temperature is 20$$^\circ$$C. The 28. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is : 29. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of en 30. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let Sn be the distance travelled 31. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerin becomes constant 32. Column - I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor. Column-II gives so 33. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the correct match from the given choices.
Column - I
C 34. In the product$$\overrightarrow F = q\left( {\overrightarrow v \times \overrightarrow B } \right)$$$$ = q\overrightarr 35. From a circular ring of mass 'M' and radius 'R' an arc corresponding to a 90$$^\circ$$ sector is removed. The moment of 36. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio $${{{i_3}} \over 37. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. The magnitude o 38. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44W lamp. Ignoring power lo 39. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of ,(i) a 40. A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity $$\upsilon $$ = kVe = (k < 1) from the surface of the earth. (Ve 41. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80$$\mu$$F capacitor and 40$$\Omega$$ resistor is connected to 230V vari 42. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a uniform speed takes a time T to complete one revolution. If this partic 43. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If R1 >& 44. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of 45. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended f 46. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put per 47. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5m/s2. At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting in th 48. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be the output at th
1
NEET 2021
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
A
Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
B
High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
C
Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
D
High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature.
2
NEET 2021
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Match the following :
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
| List-I | List-II | ||
|---|---|---|---|
| (a) | Physalia | (i) | Pearl oyster |
| (b) | Limulus | (ii) | Portuguese Man of War |
| (c) | Ancylostoma | (iii) | Living fossil |
| (d) | Pinctada | (iv) | Hookworm |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) |
|---|---|---|---|
| (i) | (iv) | (iii) | (ii) |
B
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) |
|---|---|---|---|
| (ii) | (iii) | (i) | (iv) |
C
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) |
|---|---|---|---|
| (iv) | (i) | (iii) | (ii) |
D
| (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) |
|---|---|---|---|
| (ii) | (iii) | (iv) | (i) |
3
NEET 2021
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
A
Pachytene
B
Leptotene
C
Zygotene
D
Diakinesis
4
NEET 2021
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?
A
T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
B
T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
C
T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
D
T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
90
Chemistry
36
Physics
48
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