Biology
1.
Mutations in plant cells can be induced by :
2.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
3.
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during polli
4.
The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :
5.
Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce to kinds of spores. Such plants are known as :
6.
The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a diagram c
7.
Diadelphous stamens are found in
8.
Match List-I with List-II :
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9.
Gemmae are present in
10.
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is :
11.
Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survi
12.
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
13.
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as
14.
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
15.
Plants follow different pathways in response to environment of phases of life to form different kinds of structures. Thi
16.
Which of the following plants is monoecious?
17.
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is
18.
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is refe
19.
Match List-I with List-II.
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20.
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
21.
The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is
22.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
23.
Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reverse food material?
24.
When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is known a
25.
Match List-I with List-II.
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26.
Match List-I with List-II .
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27.
Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
28.
In the equation GPP - R = NPPR represents :
29.
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as :
30.
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field
31.
Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?
32.
Amensalism can be represented as :
33.
Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
34.
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
35.
Match List-I with List-II.
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36.
Which of the following statements is correct?
37.
In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert, e represents
38.
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after relea
39.
Match Column - I with Column - II.
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40.
Match List-I with List-II.
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41.
Match List-I with List-II.
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42.
Match Column-I with Column-II Select the correct answer from the options given below.
43.
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?
44.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
45.
Now-a-days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its compl
46.
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as
47.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
48.
Plasmid pBR322 has Pst I restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is
49.
Identify the correct statement.
50.
Select the correct pair.
51.
Match List-I with List-II
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52.
Succus entericus is referred to as :
53.
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
54.
The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase
55.
Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
56.
Match the following :
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57.
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
58.
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?
59.
The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are :
60.
Read the following statements(1) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.(2) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate an
61.
In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny wil
62.
Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?
63.
Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?
64.
During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then wh
65.
Match List-I with List-II.
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66.
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?
67.
The centriole undergoes duplication during :
68.
Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach?
69.
Dobson units are used to measure thickness of :
70.
Veneral diseases can spread through :(1) Using sterile needles(2) Transfusion of blood from infected person(3) Infector
71.
Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?
72.
Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipients". This is due to :
73.
The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are
74.
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is :
75.
Identify the incorrect pair
76.
With regard to insulin choose correct options.(1) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.(2) The insulin produced by
77.
Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal m
78.
Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein?
79.
Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification of crops?
80.
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C formation is produced by :
81.
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
82.
For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which o
83.
Sphincter of oddi is present at :
84.
Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of tr
85.
Match List-I with List-II.
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86.
Match List-I with List-II
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87.
Following are the statements with reference to 'lipids'.(1) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty
88.
Match List-I with List-II
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89.
During muscular contraction which of the following events occur?(1) 'H' zone disappears(2) 'A' band widens(3) 'I' band r
90.
Match List-I with List-II.
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91.
Assertion (A) : A person goes to high altitude and experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like breathing difficul
92.
Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?
93.
Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
94.
Match List-I with List-II
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95.
Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?
96.
The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into
97.
Which one of the following statements about histones is wrong?
98.
Statement I : The codon 'AUG' codes for methionine and phenylalanine.Statement II : 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code for
99.
Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of
100.
Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm.(1) It serves as a covering for mouth.(2) It helps to open cr
Chemistry
1.
The incorrect statement among the following is :
2.
Given below are two statements :Statement I :Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics.Statemen
3.
Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI.Statement II : As t
4.
Which one among the following is the correct option for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole of ideal gas?
5.
The correct option for the number of body centred unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is :
6.
Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is :
7.
Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which of the the following particles?
8.
The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast furnace is :
9.
BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. Hybridization and number of elements around the central atom, respectivel
10.
The major product of the following chemical reaction is :
11.
The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm2 mol$$-$$1 respect
12.
A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The wavelength of
13.
Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction? Choose the right option.
14.
The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is exhibited by", is :
15.
The compound which shows metamerism is :
16.
Match List - I with List - II :
List - I
List - II
(a)
$$PC{l_5}$$
(i)
Squ
17.
Which one of the following polymers is prepared by addition polymerisation?
18.
The RBC deficiency of deficiency disease of :
19.
Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.
20.
Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :
21.
Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
22.
The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is bas
23.
An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirica
24.
The pKb of dimethyl amine and pKa of acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct option for the pH
25.
The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and vapour phase, are :
26.
Which one of the following methods can be used to obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room temperature?
27.
Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :
28.
The correct structure of 2, 6-dimethyl-dec-4-ene is
29.
Choose the correct option for graphical representation of Boyle's law, which shows a graph of pressure vs. volume of a g
30.
The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1), 10 g of urea (CH4
31.
The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C-X' bond is :
32.
Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is :
33.
Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.
34.
What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound formed in the following chemical reaction?
35.
For a reaction, A $$\to$$ B, enthalpy of reaction is $$-$$4.2 kJ mol$$-$$1 and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol$$-$$
36.
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I
List-II
(a)
$$2S{O_2}(g) + {O_2}(g) \to 2S{O_3}
37.
Consider the above reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical.
38.
The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a solution at 45$$^\circ$$C with benzene to octane in molar ratio
39.
Match List-I with List-II Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
40.
The intermediate compound 'X' in the following chemical reaction is :
41.
The product formed in the following chemical reaction is :
42.
The slope of Arrhenius plot $$\left( {\ln \,k\,v/s{1 \over T}} \right)$$ of first order reactino is $$-$$5 $$\times$$ 10
43.
The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical reaction is :
44.
For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is :
45.
From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair?
46.
The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S cm2 mol$$-$$1. What is the dissociation constant of acetic acid? C
47.
Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?
48.
Match List-I with List-II :
List-I
List-II
(a)
$${[Fe{(CN)_6}]^{3 - }}$$
(i)
49.
Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in atm.) in a mixture of 4g O2 and 2g H2 confined in a total volume of
50.
In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicted again
Physics
1.
The E and G respectively denote energy and gravitational constant, then $${E \over G}$$ has the dimensions of :
2.
An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are connected in series to an
3.
A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency 'n', the frequency of its potential energy is :
4.
A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross section. The var
5.
A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding per nucleon of unfragmente
6.
A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field $$\overrightarrow E $$ in the space between the plates. If the d
7.
The number of photons per second on an average emitted by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600nm, when it
8.
Polar molecules are the molecules :
9.
The half life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 hours
10.
A capacitor of capacitance 'C', is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given by V = V0sin$$\omega$$tThe displace
11.
A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire Main scale reading : 0 mmCircular
12.
Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Refractive index of the glass is $$\sqrt 3 $$
13.
In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V
14.
A particle is released from height S from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three time
15.
The effective resistance of a parallel connection that consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-secti
16.
Water falls from a height of 60m at the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are 10%
17.
An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of 5A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of 105 m/s pa
18.
Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer.(A) A Zener diode is connected in reverse
19.
A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by i
20.
The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An ex
21.
A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which direction will it move?
22.
A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a
23.
The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radiu
24.
An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '$$\lambda$$' is incident on a photosensitive surface of negligible work function.
25.
A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since :
26.
Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge densities
27.
For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x-direction, which one of the following combination gives the correct po
28.
A cup of coffee cools from 90$$^\circ$$C to 80$$^\circ$$C in t minutes, when the room temperature is 20$$^\circ$$C. The
29.
The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is :
30.
If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of en
31.
A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let Sn be the distance travelled
32.
The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerin becomes constant
33.
Column - I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor. Column-II gives so
34.
A radioactive nucleus $$_Z^AX$$ $$\to$$ $${}_{Z - 1}B$$ $$\to$$ $${}_{Z - 3}C$$ $$\to$$ $${}_{Z - 2}D$$, where Z is the
35.
Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the correct match from the given choices.
Column - I
C
36.
In the product$$\overrightarrow F = q\left( {\overrightarrow v \times \overrightarrow B } \right)$$$$ = q\overrightarr
37.
From a circular ring of mass 'M' and radius 'R' an arc corresponding to a 90$$^\circ$$ sector is removed. The moment of
38.
Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio $${{{i_3}} \over
39.
A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. The magnitude o
40.
A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44W lamp. Ignoring power lo
41.
A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of ,(i) a
42.
A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity $$\upsilon $$ = kVe = (k < 1) from the surface of the earth. (Ve
43.
A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80$$\mu$$F capacitor and 40$$\Omega$$ resistor is connected to 230V vari
44.
A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a uniform speed takes a time T to complete one revolution. If this partic
45.
Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If R1 >&
46.
Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of
47.
A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended f
48.
A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were put per
49.
A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5m/s2. At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting in th
50.
For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be the output at th
1
NEET 2021
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The following solutions were prepared by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1), 10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3). The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :
A
P3 > P1 > P2
B
P2 > P1 > P3
C
P1 > P2 > P3
D
P2 > P3 > P1
2
NEET 2021
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C-X' bond is :
A
CH3 - Cl > CH3 - F > CH3 - Br > CH3 - l
B
CH3 - F < CH3 - Cl < CH3 - Br < CH3 - l
C
CH3 - F > CH3 - Cl > CH3 - Br > CH3 - l
D
CH3 - F < CH3 - Cl > CH3 - Br > CH3 - l
3
NEET 2021
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is :
A
0$$^\circ$$
B
120$$^\circ$$
C
180$$^\circ$$
D
60$$^\circ$$
4
NEET 2021
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.
A
Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy
B
Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
C
Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points
D
Noble gases have weak dispersion forces
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
100
Chemistry
50
Physics
50
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