Biology
1. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on 2. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres? 3. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in 4. Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria? 5. Viruses have 6. The motile bacteria are able to move by 7. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of 8. Which one of the following is wrong about Chara? 9. Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in 10. Which of the following is responsible for peat formation? 11. Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall? 12. Select the taxon mentioned that represents both marine and fresh water species. 13. Planaria possesses high capacity of 14. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is 15. Planaria possesses high capacity of 16. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in 17. An example of edible underground steam is 18. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as 19. Which one of the following statements is correct? 20. Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action. 21. Which one of the following is a non - reducing carbohydrate? 22. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is denoted as 2C? 23. In 'S' phase of the cell cycle 24. The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage of meiosis? 25. Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in 26. In which one of the following processes CO2 is not released? 27. Dr. F. went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending 28. Which one of the following growth regulators is known as 'stress hormone'? 29. A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have become white -colour 30. Fructose is absorbed into the blood through mucosa cells of intesine by the process called 31. The initial step in the digestion of milk in humans is carried out by 32. Approximately seventy percent of carbon-dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs 33. Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has 34. How do parasympathetic neutral signals affect the working of the heart? 35. Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule? 36. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at 37. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system. 38. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 39. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt 40. Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function. 41. Flight-or-flight reactions cause activation of 42. Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes? 43. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from 44. Geitonogamy involves 45. Pollen tablets are available in the market for 46. Function of filiform apparatus is to 47. Non-albuminous seed is produced in 48. The shared terminal duct of the repoductive and urinary system in the human male is 49. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce 50. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female. 51. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which : 52. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of : 53. Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra Uterine Device (IUD)? 54. Transformation was discovered by : 55. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? 56. Select the correct option ; 57. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering
branch is shown below?
58. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS ? 59. In vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterized by : 60. To obtain virus−free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which
part/parts of the diseased pl 61. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens? 62. An alga which can be employed as food for human being is : 63. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters ? 64. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the Southern hybridization technique does not use: 65. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA ? 66. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are : 67. The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is : 68. Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot
summer, thousands of migratory b 69. Match the following and select the correct option:
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blanks (A-D). Identify the 71. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to
peacock as food in the followi 72. An example of ex situ conservation is : 73. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called : 74. The organization which publishes the Red List of species is : 75. Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What
groups the four portions (A-D 76. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes : 77. The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called : 78. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the : 79. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following
anatomical structures will you u 80. Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in : 81. Choose the correctly matched pair: 82. Choose the correctly matched pair : 83. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type
of monomer are known as: 84. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by: 85. Match the following and select the correct answer :
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Chemistry
1. When 22.4 liters of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g), each at S.T.P. the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal to 2. Equal masses of H2, O2 and methane have been taken in a container of volume V at temperature 27oC in identical condition 3. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a closed vessel, Which reactant is left in excess and how much ? (At. wt. 4. What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum numbers ?
n = 3, l = 1, m1 = 0 5. Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm. (Planck,s constant, h = 6.63 $$ \times $$ 10$$ 6. Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions ? 7. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented ? 8. Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment ? 9. Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape ? 10. Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas? 11. For the reaction, $${X_2}{O_{4\left( l \right)}}\,\, \to \,\,2X{O_{2(g)}}$$
$$\Delta $$U = 2.1 kcal, $$\Delta $$S = 20 12. Which of the following salts will give highest pH in water? 13. Using the Gibb's energy change, $$\Delta $$Go = +63.3 kJ, for the following reaction,
Ag2CO3(s) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 14. For a given exothermic reaction, Kp and K'p are the equilibrium constants at temperatures T1 and T2, respectively. Ass 15. For the reversible reaction,
N2(g) + 3H2(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 2NH3(g) + heat
The equilibrium shifts in forward 16. In the Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75 g of sample neut 17. What products are formed when the following compound is treated with Br2 in the presence of FeBr3?
18. Identify Z in the sequence of reactions :
19. Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product (CO2)? 20. Which of the following compounds will undergo racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses?
21. Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium hydrogen carbonate? 22. Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole? 23. The pair of compounds that can exist together is 24. (I) H2O2 + O3 $$ \to $$ H2O + 2O2
(II) H2O2 + Ag2O $$ \to $$ 2Ag + H2O + O2
Role of Hy 25. In acidic medium, H2O2 changes Cr2O72- to CrO5 which has two ($$-$$O$$-$$O$$-$$) bonds. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is 26. Which one is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction? 27. In the following reaction, the product (A) is
28. Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt RN2+X$$-$$? 29. Which of the following hormones is produced under the condition of stress which simulate glycogenlysis in the liver of h 30. D(+)-glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be 31. Which of the following organic compounds polymerizes to form the polyester dacron? 32. Which one of the following is an example of thermosetting polymer? 33. If $$a$$ is the length of the side of a cube, the distance between the body centered atom and one corner atom in the cu 34. Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point depression? 35. The weight of silver (at. wt. = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of O2 at STP will be 36. When 0.1 mol MnO$$_4^{2 - }$$ is oxidised the quantity of electricity required to completely oxidise MnO$$_4^{2 - }$$ to 37. Which property of colloids is not dependent on the charge on colloidal particles? 38. Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increases in the order 39. Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions?
(At. nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28) 40. The reaction of aqueous KMnO4 with H2O2 in acidic conditions gives 41. Reason of lanthanoid contraction is 42. Artificial sweetner which is stable under cold conditions only is 43. Among the following complexes the one which shows zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is 44. Which of the following complexes is used to be as an anticancer agent? 45. Which one of the following is not a common component of Photochemical smog?
Physics
1. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then dimensions of mass are 2. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5 m s$$-$$1 and angle $$\theta $$
with the hor 3. A particle is moving such that is position coordinates (x, y) are (2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0, (6 m, 7 m)
at time t = 2 s 4. A balloon with mass m is descending down with an acceleration a (where a < g). How much mass should be removed from i 5. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass m1 hangs freely 6. The force F acting on a particle of mass m is indicated by the force-time graph shown below. The change in momentum of t 7. A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces, each of mass (m) 8. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless string is wound 9. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass m and radius R) rolling down an incline of angle $$\theta $$ wit 10. A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot escape from it. To what approxim 11. Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly represen 12. Copper of fixed volume V is drawn into wire of length $$l$$. When this wire is subjected to a constant force F, the exte 13. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius r coalesce to form a single drop of radius R and volume V. If 14. Steam at 100oC is passed into 20 g of water at 10oC. When water acquires a temperature of 80oC, the mass of water presen 15. Certain quantity of water cools from 70oC to 60oC in the first 5 minutes and to 54oC in the next 5 minutes. The temperat 16. A monatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then adiabatically to a volum 17. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown in figure. The work done by the system in the cycle is
18. The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius r) is inversely proportional to 19. The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the equation,
X = A cos$$\left( {\omega t} \ 20. If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental frequencies of three segments into which a string is divided, then the original f 21. A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead him. He slows down to 36 km hour$$-$$1. He finds that traffic has eased a 22. The number of possible natural oscillations of air column in a pipe closed at one end length 85 cm whose frequencies lie 23. In a region, the potential is represented by V(x, y, z) = 6x $$-$$ 8xy $$-$$ 8y + 6yz, where $$V$$ is in vol 24. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. The electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the 25. Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K1 and K2(K1 < K2) are inserted between plates of a parallel plate 26. The resistances in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5 $$\Omega $$ and R$$\Omega $$ respectively. When the resistance 27. A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the internal resistance of a given cell. The main battery, used acro 28. Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power is sent from one city to another city through copper wires. The fall of pote 29. Two identical long conducting wires $$AOB$$ and $$COD$$ are placed at right angle to each other, with one above other su 30. In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G, the resistance o 31. Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has magnetic dipole momen 32. A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius r is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field 33. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil i 34. Light with an energy flux of 25 $$ \times $$ 104 W m$$-$$2 falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. 35. The angle of a prism is A. One of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2 A o 36. A beam of light of $$\lambda = 600$$ nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffra 37. If the focal length of objective lens is increased then magnifying power of 38. In the Young's double slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference $$\lamb 39. When the energy of the incident radiation is increased nby 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a 40. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times its previous value, the percentage change in the de Brogl 41. A radioactive X with a half life 1.4 $$ \times $$ 109 years decays to Y which is stable. A sample of the rock from a cav 42. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of $$\lambda $$ = 975 $$\mathop A\limits^ \circ $ 43. The binding energy per nucleon of and nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV respectively. In the nuclear reaction
$${}_3^7Li 44. The given graph represents V-I characteristic for a semiconductor device.
Which of the following statement is correct 45. The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on
(1) type of semiconductor material
(2) amou
1
AIPMT 2014
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of
A
Rhodospirillum
B
Spirogyra
C
Chlamydomonas
D
Ulva.
2
AIPMT 2014
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which one of the following is wrong about Chara?
A
Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium
B
Globule and nucule present on the same plant
C
Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
D
Globule is male reproductive structure
3
AIPMT 2014
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in
A
Pteris
B
Funaria
C
Lilium
D
Pinus.
4
AIPMT 2014
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which of the following is responsible for peat formation?
A
Marchanita
B
Riccia
C
Funaria
D
Sphagnum
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
85
Chemistry
45
Physics
45
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