Biology
1. Approximately seventy percent of carbon-dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs 2. In 'S' phase of the cell cycle 3. The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage of meiosis? 4. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is denoted as 2C? 5. Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action. 6. A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have become white -colour 7. Dr. F. went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending 8. Which one of the following growth regulators is known as 'stress hormone'? 9. In which one of the following processes CO2 is not released? 10. Which one of the following is a non - reducing carbohydrate? 11. Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has 12. How do parasympathetic neutral signals affect the working of the heart? 13. Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule? 14. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at 15. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system. 16. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt 17. Flight-or-flight reactions cause activation of 18. Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function. 19. Viruses have 20. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on 21. Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in 22. Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria? 23. The motile bacteria are able to move by 24. Which of the following is responsible for peat formation? 25. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres? 26. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of 27. Which one of the following is wrong about Chara? 28. Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes? 29. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in 30. Select the taxon mentioned that represents both marine and fresh water species. 31. Planaria possesses high capacity of 32. Planaria possesses high capacity of 33. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is 34. Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall? 35. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as 36. An example of edible underground steam is 37. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in 38. Which one of the following statements is correct? 39. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to
peacock as food in the followi 40. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the Southern hybridization technique does not use: 41. Which vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA ? 42. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are : 43. The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is : 44. Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four
blanks (A-D). Identify the 45. A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called : 46. Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What
groups the four portions (A-D 47. Match the following and select the correct option:
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summer, thousands of migratory b 51. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following
anatomical structures will you u 52. Choose the correctly matched pair: 53. Choose the correctly matched pair : 54. Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in : 55. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type
of monomer are known as: 56. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by: 57. Match the following and select the correct answer :
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.tg td 58. Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra Uterine Device (IUD)? 59. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from 60. Geitonogamy involves 61. Pollen tablets are available in the market for 62. The shared terminal duct of the repoductive and urinary system in the human male is 63. Function of filiform apparatus is to 64. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce 65. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female. 66. Non-albuminous seed is produced in 67. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which : 68. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of : 69. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? 70. Transformation was discovered by : 71. Select the correct option ; 72. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens? 73. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering
branch is shown below?
74. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS ? 75. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters ? 76. An alga which can be employed as food for human being is : 77. To obtain virus−free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which
part/parts of the diseased pl
Chemistry
1. Which of the following complexes is used to be as an anticancer agent? 2. Among the following complexes the one which shows zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is 3. D(+)-glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be 4. Which of the following compounds will undergo racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses?
5. The pair of compounds that can exist together is 6. Which one is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction? 7. (I) H2O2 + O3 $$ \to $$ H2O + 2O2
(II) H2O2 + Ag2O $$ \to $$ 2Ag + H2O + O2
Role of Hy 8. In acidic medium, H2O2 changes Cr2O72- to CrO5 which has two ($$-$$O$$-$$O$$-$$) bonds. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is 9. Which of the following hormones is produced under the condition of stress which simulate glycogenlysis in the liver of h 10. In the following reaction, the product (A) is
11. Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt RN2+X$$-$$? 12. Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium hydrogen carbonate? 13. Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point depression? 14. When 0.1 mol MnO$$_4^{2 - }$$ is oxidised the quantity of electricity required to completely oxidise MnO$$_4^{2 - }$$ to 15. The weight of silver (at. wt. = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of O2 at STP will be 16. Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increases in the order 17. Reason of lanthanoid contraction is 18. The reaction of aqueous KMnO4 with H2O2 in acidic conditions gives 19. Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions?
(At. nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28) 20. Which of the following salts will give highest pH in water? 21. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a closed vessel, Which reactant is left in excess and how much ? (At. wt. 22. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented ? 23. When 22.4 liters of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g), each at S.T.P. the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal to 24. Equal masses of H2, O2 and methane have been taken in a container of volume V at temperature 27oC in identical condition 25. What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum numbers ?
n = 3, l = 1, m1 = 0 26. Be2+ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions ? 27. Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm. (Planck,s constant, h = 6.63 $$ \times $$ 10$$ 28. Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape ? 29. Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment ? 30. Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas? 31. For the reaction, $${X_2}{O_{4\left( l \right)}}\,\, \to \,\,2X{O_{2(g)}}$$
$$\Delta $$U = 2.1 kcal, $$\Delta $$S = 20 32. For a given exothermic reaction, Kp and K'p are the equilibrium constants at temperatures T1 and T2, respectively. Ass 33. Using the Gibb's energy change, $$\Delta $$Go = +63.3 kJ, for the following reaction,
Ag2CO3(s) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 34. For the reversible reaction,
N2(g) + 3H2(g) $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 2NH3(g) + heat
The equilibrium shifts in forward 35. In the Kjeldahl's method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75 g of sample neut 36. What products are formed when the following compound is treated with Br2 in the presence of FeBr3?
37. Identify Z in the sequence of reactions :
38. Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product (CO2)? 39. Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole?
Physics
1. Light with an energy flux of 25 $$ \times $$ 104 W m$$-$$2 falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. 2. A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. The electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the 3. Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power is sent from one city to another city through copper wires. The fall of pote 4. In a region, the potential is represented by V(x, y, z) = 6x $$-$$ 8xy $$-$$ 8y + 6yz, where $$V$$ is in vol 5. The resistances in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5 $$\Omega $$ and R$$\Omega $$ respectively. When the resistance 6. In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G, the resistance o 7. Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has magnetic dipole momen 8. A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the internal resistance of a given cell. The main battery, used acro 9. Two identical long conducting wires $$AOB$$ and $$COD$$ are placed at right angle to each other, with one above other su 10. If the focal length of objective lens is increased then magnifying power of 11. A beam of light of $$\lambda = 600$$ nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffra 12. Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K1 and K2(K1 < K2) are inserted between plates of a parallel plate 13. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil i 14. The angle of a prism is A. One of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2 A o 15. A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius r is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field 16. In the Young's double slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference $$\lamb 17. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of $$\lambda $$ = 975 $$\mathop A\limits^ \circ $ 18. When the energy of the incident radiation is increased nby 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a 19. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times its previous value, the percentage change in the de Brogl 20. The binding energy per nucleon of and nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV respectively. In the nuclear reaction
$${}_3^7Li 21. The given graph represents V-I characteristic for a semiconductor device.
Which of the following statement is correct 22. A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot escape from it. To what approxim 23. A body of mass (4m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces, each of mass (m) 24. A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass m1 hangs freely 25. A balloon with mass m is descending down with an acceleration a (where a < g). How much mass should be removed from i 26. The force F acting on a particle of mass m is indicated by the force-time graph shown below. The change in momentum of t 27. A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5 m s$$-$$1 and angle $$\theta $$
with the hor 28. A particle is moving such that is position coordinates (x, y) are (2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0, (6 m, 7 m)
at time t = 2 s 29. A solid cylinder of mass 50 kg and radius 0.5 m is free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless string is wound 30. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass m and radius R) rolling down an incline of angle $$\theta $$ wit 31. Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly represen 32. Certain quantity of water cools from 70oC to 60oC in the first 5 minutes and to 54oC in the next 5 minutes. The temperat 33. The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on
(1) type of semiconductor material
(2) amou 34. Copper of fixed volume V is drawn into wire of length $$l$$. When this wire is subjected to a constant force F, the exte 35. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius r coalesce to form a single drop of radius R and volume V. If 36. Steam at 100oC is passed into 20 g of water at 10oC. When water acquires a temperature of 80oC, the mass of water presen 37. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown in figure. The work done by the system in the cycle is
38. The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius r) is inversely proportional to 39. A monatomic gas at a pressure P, having a volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then adiabatically to a volum 40. The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the equation,
X = A cos$$\left( {\omega t} \ 41. The number of possible natural oscillations of air column in a pipe closed at one end length 85 cm whose frequencies lie 42. If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental frequencies of three segments into which a string is divided, then the original f 43. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then dimensions of mass are
1
AIPMT 2014
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four
blanks (A-D). Identify the blanks.
A
A $$ \to $$ Detritus , B $$ \to $$ Rock minerals, C $$ \to $$ Producer , D $$ \to $$ Litter fall
B
A $$ \to $$ Litter fall , B $$ \to $$ Producers , C $$ \to $$ Rock minerals , D $$ \to $$ Detritus
C
A $$ \to $$ Rock Minerals, B $$ \to $$ Detritus, C $$ \to $$ Litter fall , D $$ \to $$ Producers
D
A $$ \to $$ Producers , B $$ \to $$ Litter fall , C $$ \to $$ Rock minerals , D $$ \to $$ Detritus
2
AIPMT 2014
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called :
A
Vulnerable
B
Critically Endangered
C
Endemic
D
Extinct
3
AIPMT 2014
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What
groups the four portions (A-D) represent respectively?
A
A $$ \to $$ Insects , B $$ \to $$ Crustaceans, C $$ \to $$ Other animal groups , D $$ \to $$ Molluscs
B
A $$ \to $$ Molluscs, B $$ \to $$ Other animal groups , C $$ \to $$ Crustaceans, D $$ \to $$ Insects
C
A $$ \to $$ Crustaceans, B $$ \to $$ Insects, C $$ \to $$ Molluscs, D $$ \to $$ Other animal groups
D
A $$ \to $$ Insects, B $$ \to $$ Molluscs, C $$ \to $$ Crustaceans, D $$ \to $$ Other animal groups
4
AIPMT 2014
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Match the following and select the correct option:
| (a) Earthworm | (i) Pioneer species |
|---|---|
| (b) Succession | (ii) Detritivore |
| (c) Ecosystem service | (iii) Natality |
| (d) Population growth | (iv) Pollination |
A
(a) $$ \to $$ (i), (b) $$ \to $$ (ii), (c) $$ \to $$ (iii), (d) $$ \to $$ (iv)
B
(a) $$ \to $$ (iii), (b) $$ \to $$ (ii), (c) $$ \to $$ (iv), (d) $$ \to $$ (i)
C
(a) $$ \to $$ (iv), (b) $$ \to $$ (i), (c) $$ \to $$ (iii), (d) $$ \to $$ (ii)
D
(a) $$ \to $$ (ii), (b) $$ \to $$ (i), (c) $$ \to $$ (iv), (d) $$ \to $$ (iii)
Paper Analysis
Total Questions
Biology 77
Chemistry 39
Physics 43
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