Biology
1. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of X 2. Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle? 3. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of 4. Lungs are made up of air-filed sacs, the alveoli. The do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of 5. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature 6. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from 7. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause the release of 8. Which of the following statements is correct? 9. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of 10. Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 acceptor in 11. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on 12. Myelin sheath is produced by 13. Good vishion depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food.
Select the best option from the following statements.
(1 14. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on 15. Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height, because 16. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is 17. Attractants and rewards are required for 18. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both 19. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into an 20. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usualy pollinated by 21. Important characteristic that hemichordates share with chordates is 22. Viroids differ from viruses in having 23. Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell? 24. Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions? 25. Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as wel 26. An example of colonial alga is 27. Select the mismatch 28. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of 29. Life cycles of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are 30. Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals? 31. Which of the following represents order of 'Horse'? 32. In case of proiferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called 33. Double fertilisation is exhibited by 34. In Bougainvillea, throns are the modifications of 35. Coconut fruit is a 36. The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is 37. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to enzymes? 38. Which of the following are not polymeric? 39. Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis? 40. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal cell. If APC 41. With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct? 42. The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as : 43. DNA fragments are 44. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ? 45. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as 46. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called :
47. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when : 48. Mycorrhizae are the example of : 49. Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to : 50. Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen best in : 51. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass ? 52. Alexander Von Humbolt described for the first time :
53. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants ? 54. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with 55. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to : 56. Which of the following is made up of dead cells ? 57. Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood : 58. Root hairs develop from the region of :
59. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs :
60. Frog’s heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime.
Select the best option from the following statem 61. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP? 62. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined
with flagellated cells called
63. Among the following characters, which one was
not considered by Mendel in his experiments on
pea? 64. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of : 65. Capacitation occurs in 66. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column – I) with their causative agent (Column – II) and
select the c 67. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD's is : 68. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilization 69. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statemen 70. The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi.
Among the blood types of their children, how many different genoty 71. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is : 72. Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel’s hybridisation experiments ? 73. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of 74. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is
deleted 75. DNA replication in bacteria occurs 76. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate 77. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell ? 78. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates : 79. Transplantation of tissues/ organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of immuneresponse 80. MALT constitutes about ________ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body 81. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids ? 82. Select the mismatch : 83. Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them ?
Chemistry
1. Which one is the wrong statement ? 2. In which pair of ions both the species contain S $$-$$ S bond? 3. Which of the following reactions is appropriate for converting acetamide to methanamine? 4. Which of the following statements is not correct? 5. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be 6. Which of the following is dependent on temperature? 7. In the electrochemical cell :
$$Zn\left| {ZnS{O_4}\left( {0.01\,M} \right)} \right|$$$$\left| {CuS{O_4}\left( {1.0M} \ri 8. Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction
X2 + Y2 $$ \to $$ 2XY, is given below :
(i) X2 $$ \to $$ X + X (fast 9. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10$$-$$2 sec$$-$$1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the re 10. It is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that 11. Match the interhalogen compounds of column-I with the geometry in column-II and assign the correct code.
.tg {border-c 12. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is
13. Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified KMnO4 solution. 14. HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing I$$-$$ ions, the pair of species formed is 15. The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to 16. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is 17. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the complexes : CoCl3.6NH3 18. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of Co3+ is 19. Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Mn(CN)6]3$$-$$. 20. The IUPAC name of the compound
21. The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/group and electronic c 22. The species, having bond angles of 120o is 23. Which of the following pairs of compounds is isostructural ? 24. Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order ? 25. For a given reaction, $$\Delta $$H = 35.5 kJ mol$$-$$1 and $$\Delta $$S = 83.6 J K$$-$$1 mol$$-$$1. The reaction is spon 26. A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial 27. The equilibrium constants of the following are
N2 + 3H2 $$\rightleftharpoons$$ 2NH3; K1
N2 28. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$4 mol L$$-$$1. Solubility pr 29. A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the volume of solid SrO) 30. The correct statement regarding electrophile is 31. The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is 32. Which one is the correct order of acidity? 33. Predict the correct intermediate and product in the following reaction :
$${H_3}C - C \equiv CH\mathrel{\mathop{\kern0pt 34. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true? 35. Identify $$A$$ and predict the type of reaction.
36. The heating of phenyl methyl ether with HI produces 37. Which one is the most acidic compound? 38. Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating? 39. Consider the reactions,
Identify A, X, Y and Z.
Physics
1. Young's double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that 8th brigh 2. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical unchanged capacitor is connected in pa 3. The diagrams below show regions of equipotentials.
A positive charge is moved from A to B in each diagram. 4. The resistance of a wire is 'R' ohm. If it is melted and stretched to 'n' times its original length. its new resistance 5. A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of EMF because the method involves 6. An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same current $$'I'$$ alo 7. If $$\theta $$1 and $$\theta $$2 be the apparent angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each o 8. A 250-turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 $$\mu $$A and subjected to a magn 9. Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical resistors with resistance R = 9.0 $$\Omega $$ each, two identical i 10. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 $$ \times $$ 104 turns per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 t 11. In an electromagnetic wave in free space that root mean square value of the electric field is Erms = 6 V m$$-$$1. The pe 12. The ratio of resolving powers of an optical microscope for two wavelength $$\lambda $$1 = 4000 $$\mathop A\limits^ \circ 13. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly. One of them is $$-$$e, the other is (e + $$\Delta $$e). 14. A beam of light from a source L is incident normally on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from the source. Th 15. A thin prism having refracting angle 10o is made of glass of refractive infex 1.42. This prism is combined with another 16. Two polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light $$I$$0 is incident on 17. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T (kelvin) and mass m, i 18. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is 3250 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$10 m. The velocity of the electron ejected 19. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series and the last line of Lyman series is 20. Which one of the following represents forward bias diode ? 21. The given electrical network is equivalent to
22. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is 'B'. If it is subjected to uniform pressure 'P', the fractional decrease in r 23. Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up the sationary escalator i 24. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x = 5t $$-$$ 2t2 and y = 10t respectively, where x and y are in 25. One end of string of length $$l$$ is connected to a particle of mass 'm' and the other end is connected to a small peg o 26. Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m respectively are connected by a massless and inextensible string. The whole system 27. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed of 50 m s$$ 28. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(1) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the 29. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through centre and perpendicular to the pl 30. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder 31. The acceleration due to gravity at a height at a height 1 km above the rearth is the same as at a depth d below the surf 32. Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after having lost contact with their spaceship. The two will 33. A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is partially filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with water, is 34. Two rods A and B of different materials are welded together as shown in figure. Their thermal conductivities are K1 and 35. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius were halved and the temper 36. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the following diagram.
Match the following
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;bor 37. A carnot engine having an efficiency of $${1 \over {10}}$$ as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done o 38. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2 and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total 39. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1 : 2 : 3. They are connected in series and the new force cons 40. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at 2 cm from the mean 41. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz. What is the fundament 42. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out of c, G and $${{{e^2}} \over {4\pi {\varepsilon _
1
NEET 2017
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis?
A
Condensation $$ \to $$ Nuclear membrane disassembly $$ \to $$ Arrangement at equator $$ \to $$ Centromere division $$ \to $$ Segregation $$ \to $$ Telophase
B
Condensation $$ \to $$ Crossing over $$ \to $$ Nuclear membrane disassembly $$ \to $$ Segregation $$ \to $$ Telophase
C
Condensation $$ \to $$ Arrangement at equator $$ \to $$ Centromere division $$ \to $$ Segregation $$ \to $$ Telophase
D
Condensation $$ \to $$ Nuclear membrane disassembly $$ \to $$ Crossing over $$ \to $$ Segregation $$ \to $$ Telophase
2
NEET 2017
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal cell. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is expected to occur?
A
Chromosomes will be fragmented.
B
Chromosomes will not segregate.
C
Recombination of chromosome arms will occur.
D
Chromosomes will not condense.
3
NEET 2017
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct?
A
Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate.
B
C3 plants respond to higher temperature with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have much lower temperature optimum.
C
Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO2 -enriched atmosphere for higher yield.
D
Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight.
4
NEET 2017
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as :
A
Transition zone
B
Restoration zone
C
Buffer zone
D
Core zone
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
83
Chemistry
39
Physics
42
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