Biology
1. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on 2. Match column I with column II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below.
. 3. Study the four statements (A-D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them.
A. Definition of bi 4. Which one of the following is wrong for fungi? 5. Select the wrong statement. 6. Methanogens belong to 7. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of 8. Which one of the following statements is wrong? 9. Choose the correct statement 10. The term 'polyadelphous' is related to 11. Free-central placentation is found in 12. How many plants among Indigofera., Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, gram and turnip have stam 13. Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of 14. Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stablishing the three-dimensional folding of most proteins? 15. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is 16. Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?
17. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place on 18. When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which checkpoint should be predominantly activated? 19. Match the stages of meiosis in column I to their characteristic features in column II and select the correct option usi 20. A few drops of sap were collected by cutting across a plant stem by a suitable method. The sap was tested chemically. Wh 21. Which is essential for the growth of root tip? 22. The process which makes major difference between C3 and C4 plants is 23. Oxidative phosphorylation is 24. Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins? 25. You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of 26. Phytochrome is a 27. Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate? 28. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is 29. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because 30. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the 31. Serum differs from blood in 32. The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is 33. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle contraction. 34. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to 35. Choose the correct statement. 36. Graves' disease is caused due to 37. Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilisatio 38. The posterior pituitary gland is not a 'true' endocrine gland because 39. Match column I with column II and select the correct option using the codes given below.
.tg {border-collapse:collaps 40. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 41. Which one of the following generates new genetic combinations leading to variation? 42. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of 43. In majority of angiosperms 44. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to 45. Match column I with column II and select the correct option using the codes given below.
.tg {border-collapse:collaps 46. Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms? 47. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are produced by 48. Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD ? 49. Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy ? 50. Embryo with more than 16 blastgomeres formed due to in vitro fertilization is transferred into 51. The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called 52. If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal colour vision, the probability of their
son being col 53. Taylor conducted the experiments to prove semiconservative mode of chromosome replication on
54. The equivalent of a structural gene is - 55. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except 56. Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria ? 57. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the 58. Genetic drift operates in 59. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by 60. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is 61. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life ?
I. Formation of protobionts
II. Synthes 62. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV ? 63. Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria ? 64. A true breeding plant is - 65. Interspecific hybridisation is the mating of 66. Among the following edible fishes, which one is a marine fish having rich source of omeg-3 fatty acids ? 67. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below –
.tg {border-collapse:collaps 68. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for - 69. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using
70. Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing ? 71. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends ? 72. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four-year-old girl with adenosine deaminase [ADA] deficiency ? 73. If '+' sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, '–' sign to detrimental and '0' sign to neutral interaction, then the 74. Which of the following is correct for r-selected species ? 75. The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by 76. The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are 77. How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by Norman Myers ? 78. Which of the following is correctly matched ? 79. Red List contains data or information on 80. Which of the following National Parks is home to the famous musk deer or hangul ? 81. A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in
82. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution for water bodies receiving
effluents from 83. The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain shall occur in 84. The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses 85. Cortex is the region found between - 86. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system ? 87. Smooth muscles are 88. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is 89. Select the mismatch.
90. Select the wrong statement-
Chemistry
1. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of XY2 weights 10 g and 0.05 mole 2. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which n = 3 and $$l$$ = 1? 3. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes ? 4. Which one of the following compounds shows the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond? 5. Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic and isostructural ? 6. The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO$$_2^ + $$, NO$$_3^ - $$ and NH$$_4^ + $$&n 7. The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are 8. Among the following, which one is a wrong statement ? 9. For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is changed isothermally from pi to pf, the entropy change is given by 10. The percentage of pyridine (C5H5N) that forms pyridinium ion (C5H5N+H) ina 0.10 M aqueous pyridine solution (Kb for C5H 11. Which of the following fluro-compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base ? 12. The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product 1.6 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$10 in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be 13. Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism?
14. Which of the following can be used as the halide component for Friedel-Crafts reaction? 15. In which of the following molecules, all atoms are coplanar? 16. In pyrrole the electron density is maximum on
17. In the given reaction,
the product P is 18. Which of the following compounds shall not produce propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination or direct only e 19. The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula 20. Consider the reaction,
CH3CH2CH2Br + NaCN $$ \to $$ CH3CH2CH2CN + NaBr
This reaction will be the fastest in 21. Hot concentrated sulphate acid is a moderately strong oxidizing agent. Which of the following reactions does not show ox 22. The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as 23. In context with beryllium, which one of the following statements is incorrect? 24. The correct structure of the product 'A' formed in the reaction
25. The correct order of strengths of the carboxylic acids
is 26. Which one of the following nitro-compounds does not react with nitrous acid? 27. A given nitrogen-containing aromatic compound 'A' reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO2 to give instable compound 'B'. 'B 28. The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from 29. The correct corresponding order of names of four aldoses with configuration given below
respectively, is 30. Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6, 6 polymer? 31. In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, the coordination numbers for calcium ion (Ca2+) and fluoride ion (F$ 32. The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is 33. Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal solution? 34. The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol/dm3 solution of AgNO3 with electrolytic conductivity of 5.76 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$3 S 35. If the Eocell for a given reaction has a negative value, which of the following gives the correct relationships for the 36. During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas using a current 37. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is because 38. The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in 60 seconds is (charge o 39. The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten at low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is because the 40. The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for the coagulation of As2S3 are given below :
I 41. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule 42. AlF3 is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. It is due to the formation of 43. Which one of the following statements related to lanthanoids is incorrect? 44. Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in high spin complexes of 45. The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the following species is
Physics
1. Planck's constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton's gravitional constant (G) are three fundamental constant 2. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in a straight line and their positions are represented by
xP(t) = 3. In the given figure, a = 15 m s$$-$$2 represents the total acceleration of particle moving in the clockwise direction in 4. A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60o and gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the figure. The 5. A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally with a velocity of 400 m s$$-$$1 strikes a wood block of mass 2 kg which is su 6. Two identical balls A and B having velocities of 0.5 m s$$-$$1 and $$-$$0.3 m s$$-$$1 respectively collide elastically 7. A particle moves from a point $$\left( { - 2\widehat i + 5\widehat j} \right)$$ to $$\left( {4\widehat j + 3\widehat k} 8. Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m with moments of inertia $${I_A}$$ and $${I_B}$$ ($${I_B}$$ > $${I_A} 9. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder of same mass and same radius is a 10. A light rod of length $$l$$ has two masses m1 and m2 attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of the system about 11. A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth (of radius R) at a height h from its surface. The total energy of the satell 12. Starting from the centre of the earth having radius R, the variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) is shown by 13. Three liquids of densities $$\rho $$1, $$\rho $$2 and $$\rho $$3 (with $$\rho $$1 > $$\rho $$2 > $$\rho 14. Two identical bodies are made of a material for which the heat capacity increases with temperature. One of these is at 1 15. A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in 10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that Newton's law of cooling i 16. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4 cm $$ \times $$ 2 cm) to (5 cm $$ \times $$ 4 cm). If the work done is 17. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a process described by the equation PV3 = constant. The heat capacity of th 18. The temperature inside a refrigerator is t2 oC. The amount of heat delivered to the room for each joule of electrical en 19. A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. The mass of each molecule 20. A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has negligible mass. When 21. The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the same frquency as the first overtone of a closed pipe L metre long. The 22. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n $$-$$ 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose to give beats. The num 23. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30o with an electric field intensity 2 $$ \times $$ 105 N C$$-$$1. It experi 24. A parallel-plate capacitor of area a, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric materials havi 25. The potential difference (VA $$-$$ VB) between the points A and B in the given figure is
26. A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is connected in series, it work 27. A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre of the 28. An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of 3.57 $$ \times $$ 10-2 T. 29. A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium state. The ene 30. Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used for combination ? 31. A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region of rafius r. The magnetic field changes with time at a rate $${{d 32. The potential differences across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and 100 V respectively in an 33. A 100 $$\Omega $$ resistance and a capacitor of 100 $$\Omega $$ reactance are connected in series across a 220 V source. 34. Two identical glass ($$\mu $$g = 3/2) equiconvex lenses of focal length $$f$$ each are kept in contact. The space betwee 35. A person can see clearly objects only when they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes . In order to increase the ma 36. An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surfac 37. The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the interference pattern, 38. A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm. The aparture is 39. Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength $$\lambda $$ fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff wavelength ( 40. Photons with energy 5 eV are incifent on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of emitted photoelectro 41. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes. The time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and 85% decay of t 42. If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength $$\lambda $ 43. For CE transistor amplifier, the aufio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2 k$$\Omega $$ is 4 V. If the c 44. The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure. The current flowing through the resistance R1 w 45. What is the output Y in the following circuit, when all the three inputs A, B, C are first 0 and then 1 ?
1
NEET 2016 Phase 2
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which of the following is correct for r-selected species ?
A
Small number of progeny with small size
B
Small number of progeny with large size
C
Large number of progeny with small size
D
Large number of progeny with large size
2
NEET 2016 Phase 2
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by
A
MacArthur
B
G. F. Gause
C
Verhulst & Pearl
D
C. Darwin
3
NEET 2016 Phase 2
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are
A
chemosynthetic bacteria
B
coral reefs
C
green algae
D
blue-green algae
4
NEET 2016 Phase 2
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by Norman Myers ?
A
34
B
17
C
43
D
25
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
90
Chemistry
45
Physics
45
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