Biology
1. Asthma may be attributed to 2. Emerson's enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of 3. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are 4. A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynth 5. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in 6. The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of 7. Name the chronic repiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking. 8. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is 9. In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea? 10. Reduction in pH of blood will 11. Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxid 12. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as 13. Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other? 14. Which one of the following statements is not true? 15. The coconut water from tender coconut represents 16. The amino acid tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of 17. Seed formation without fertilisation in flowering plants involves the process of 18. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the 19. Select the incorrect statement. 20. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of 21. Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of 22. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates
and Slime moulds are included in the Kingdom 23. Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids? 24. One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is 25. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is countrary to the rules of nomenclatur 26. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the 27. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires 28. Select the correct statement 29. Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals? 30. Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum Arthropoda? 31. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?
.tg {border-c 32. Identify the correct statement on 'inhibin'. 33. Cotyledon of maize grain is called 34. Which of the following is not a stem modification? 35. The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called 36. Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as 37. In meiosis crossing over is initiated at 38. A typical fat molecule is made up of 39. Spindle fibres attach on to 40. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells? 41. Which one of the following statements is wrong? 42. The term ecosystem was coined by : 43. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ? 44. The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from 45. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita ? 46. It is much easier for a small animals to run uphill than for a large animal, because - 47. Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present? 48. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by 49. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease ? 50. Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states that - 51. Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks? 52. Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India ? 53. Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction ? 54. When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero? The logistic model is given as
dN/dt 55. Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem ? 56. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its locations ? 57. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called - 58. Mitochondria and chloroplast are-
(a) semi-autonomous organelles
(b) formed by division of pre existing organelles and t 59. Which of the following features is not present
in Periplaneta americana?
60. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?
61. Microtubules are the constituents of 62. Which one of the following is the starter codon ? 63. Which of the following statements is not correct? 64. Fertilisation in humans is practically feasible only if 65. In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect ? 66. Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive ? 67. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1 plants
were se 68. In a testcross involving F1 dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant-typeoffsprin 69. Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia ? 70. Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the correct option :
.tg {border-collapse:c 71. A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cel 72. Pick out the correct statements :
(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
(b) Down's syndrome is due to aneup 73. Which one of the following statements is wrong? 74. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as : 75. Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon? 76. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain - 77. Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations ? 78. Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life -
(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth we 79. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to geneti 80. Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird ? 81. Analogous structures are a result of : 82. Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?
Chemistry
1. Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by 2. Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules? 3. The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is 4. The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is 5. Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and t 6. At 100oC the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm. If Kb = 0.52, the boiling poin 7. The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H2-electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is 8. The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities? 9. The rate of first-order reaction is 0.04 mol L$$-$$1 s$$-$$1 at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol L$$-$$1 s$$-$$1 at 20 seconds af 10. In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by 11. Among the following the correct order of acidity is 12. Which is the correct statement for the given acids? 13. Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridisation and shape given in column II and mark the correct option
. 14. When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces 15. Which one of the following statements is correct when SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution? 16. The electronic configuration of Eu (Atomic No. 63), Gd (Atomic No. 64) and Tb (Atomic No.65) are 17. Which of the following has longest C$$-$$O bond length? (Free C$$-$$O bond length in CO is 1.128 $$\mathop A\limits^o $ 18. In the reaction
X and Y are 19. In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated again 20. Predict the correct order among the following : 21. Consider the molecules CH4, NH3 and H2O.
Which of the given statements is false? 22. The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures is 23. Consider the following liquid-vapour equilibrium.
Liquid $$\rightleftharpoons$$ Vapour
Which of the following relation 24. MY and NY3, two nearly insoluble salts, have the same Ksp values of 6.2 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$13 at room temperature. Whic 25. Which of the following biphenyls is optically active ? 26. For the following reactions :
(A) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH $$ \to $$
&nbs 27. The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is 28. Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc.H2SO4 and HNO3. If a large amount of KHSO4 is added to the mixture, t 29. The pair of electrons in the given carbanion, CH3C $$ \equiv $$ C$$-$$, is present in which of the following orbitals? 30. The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon, is 31. The reaction
can be classified as 32. Which of the following reagents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1-2-diol from the trans-isomer? 33. Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar? 34. The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is
Physics
1. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width $$a$$, the first minimum is observed at an angle 30o when light 2. Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of lengths $$l$$, are initially a 3. A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected 4. The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t is Q = at $$-$$ bt2, where $$a$$ and $$b$$ are positive con 5. A square loop ABCD carrying a current $$i$$, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a cu 6. The magnetic susceptibility is negative for 7. A long straight wire of radius $$a$$ carries a steady current $$I$$. The current is uniformly distributed over its cross 8. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4 A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the s 9. Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2. [Where m is the magnification produced by the mirror]
.tg { 10. The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45o. The angle of prism is 60o. If the 11. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 $$\mu F$$ and a resistor 40 $$\Omega $$ are connected in series across a source of emf 12. The intensity at the maximum in a Young's double slit experiment is $$I$$0. Distance between two slits is d = 5$$\lambda 13. A capacitor of 2 $$\mu $$F is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the percentag 14. Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave ? 15. A small signal voltage V(t) = V0 sin$$\omega $$t is applied across an ideal capacitor C 16. A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 17. Given the value of Rydberg constant is 107 m$$-$$1, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen sp 18. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength $$\lambda $$, the stopping potential is V. If the sa 19. When an $$\alpha $$-particle of mass m moving with velocity v bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge Ze, its distance of 20. An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is 21. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is
22. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is
23. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the escape velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and mean density are tw 24. What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete 25. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force $$\overrightarrow F = \left( {2t\widehat 26. A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle $$\theta $$. The coefficient of friction 27. A particle moves so that its position vector is given by $$\overrightarrow r = \cos \omega t\,\widehat x + \sin \,\omeg 28. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between the 29. A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magni 30. From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is t 31. A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and pa 32. A disc and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. 33. At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are $$-$$5.4 $$ \times $$ 107 J kg 34. Two non-mixing liquids of densities $$\rho $$ and n$$\rho $$ (n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each liqui 35. A refrigerator works between 4oC and 30oC. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep t 36. A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is U1, at w 37. A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic 38. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by t 39. The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 2000 m s$$-$$1 at 27oC and 1.0 $$ \times $$ 105 N m$$-$$2 40. Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are $$\alpha $$1 and $$\alpha $$2. Lengths of brass and steel ro 41. A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m2 is attached to the free 42. An air column, closed at one end open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column 43. If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt2, where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1
1
NEET 2016 Phase 1
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is
A
the eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even through the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain
B
the staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has no torsional strain
C
the staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has torsional strain
D
the eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than stggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain.
2
NEET 2016 Phase 1
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc.H2SO4 and HNO3. If a large amount of KHSO4 is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be
A
unchanged
B
doubled
C
faster
D
slower
3
NEET 2016 Phase 1
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The pair of electrons in the given carbanion, CH3C $$ \equiv $$ C$$-$$, is present in which of the following orbitals?
A
sp2
B
sp
C
2p
D
sp3
4
NEET 2016 Phase 1
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon, is
A
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation
B
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto-enol tautomerism
C
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon never equilibrates with its corresponding enol
D
a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha-carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde-ketone equilibration.
Paper Analysis
Total Questions
Biology 82
Chemistry 34
Physics 43
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