Biology
1. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in 2. Virus envelope is known as 3. One of the free-living, anaerobic nitrogen-fixer is 4. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH 2) habitats belong to the two groups 5. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in 6. Male and female gametophytes are independent and free-living in 7. Algae have cell wall made up of: 8. One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is 9. Which one of the following statements about all the four of Spongilla, leech, dolphin and penguin is correct? 10. Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic? 11. Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct? 12. Keel is characteristic of the flowers of 13. Ovary is half-inferior in the flowers of 14. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is comparable to which part of the seed in other monocotyledons? 15. The technical term used for the androecium in a flower of China rose (Hibiscus rosa sinensis) is 16. During mitosis, ER and nucleolus begin to disappear at 17. PGA as the first CO2 fixation product was discovered in photosynthesis of 18. C4 plants are more efficient in photosynthesis than C3 plants due to 19. The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidised without an external electron acceptor is called 20. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of 21. Photoperiodism was first characterised in 22. Coiling of garden pea tendrils around any support is an example of 23. What is true about RBCs in humans? 24. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (i $$-$$ iv) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a normal human adult.
25. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional, what w 26. Which two of the following changes (i $$-$$ iv) usually tend to occur in the plain dwellers when they move to high altit 27. Which one of the following statements in regard to the excretion by the human kidneys is correct? 28. The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesised 29. Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human skeleton? 30. The nerve centres which control the body temperature and the urge for eating are contained in 31. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to affect the secretion of which one of the following? 32. Low Ca++ in the body fluid may be the cause of 33. Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? 34. Toxic agents present in food which interfere with thyroxine synthesis lead to the development of 35. select the correct matching of a hormone, its source and function. 36. Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise form 37. Wind pollinated flowers are 38. Transfer of pollen grains from the another to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called 39. Sertoli cells are found in : 40. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from : 41. The first movements of the foetus and
appearance of hair on its head are usually
observed during which month of pregnanc 42. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in 43. The second maturation division of the
mammalian ovum occurs 44. Which one of the following statements about
human sperm is correct? 45. Which one of the following statements about
morula in humans is correct? 46. The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is 47. In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves
transfer of which one of the following into the
fallopian tube? 48. The permissible use of the technique
aminocentesis is for 49. Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra
Uterine Devices (IUDs) – 50. Which one of the following symbols and its
representation, used in human pedigree
analysis is correct – 51. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by
the gene I. It has three alleles – IA, IB
and i.
Since there are three dif 52. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant
phenotype can be determined
by – 53. Select the correct statement from the ones given
below with respect to dihybrid cross – 54. Which one of the following cannot be explained
on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance? 55. Which one of the following does not follow the
central dogma of molecular biology ? 56. Which one of the following palindromic base
sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about the
middle by some particular re 57. The one aspect which is not a salient feature of
genetic code, is its being – 58. Select the two correct statements out of the four
(a-d) statements given below about lac operon.
(a) Glucose or galacto 59. Darwin's finches are a good example of – 60. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of – 61. Ringworm in humans is caused by : 62. Which one of the following statements is
correct with respect to AIDS ? 63. Infectious proteins are present in – 64. Select the correct statement from the ones given
below : 65. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals,
vitamins and proteins is called – 66. The common nitrogen-fixer in paddy fields is – 67. Which one of the following not used in organic
farming ? 68. A common biocontrol agent for the control of
plant diseases is – 69. Select the correct statement from the following: 70. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
moleculer is called – 71. Which one of the following is used as vector for
cloning genes into higher organisms ? 72. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which – 73. Which of the following are used in gene
cloning ? 74. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed
for – 75. The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India
has been developed for: 76. An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice 77. Genetic engineering has been successfully used
for producing – 78. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are – 79. The figure given below is a diagrammatic
representation of response of organisms to
abiotic factors. What do a, b and c 80. Which one of the following is one of the
characteristics of a biological community? 81. The biomass available for consumption by the
herbivores and the decomposers is called – 82. Study the four statements (a–d) given below and
select the two correct ones out of them –
(a) A lion eating a deer and 83. Which one of the following is an example of ex situ conservation ? 84. Which one of the folliwng is not a lateral
meristem ? 85. Heartwood differs from sapwood in – 86. The chief water conducting elements of xylem
in gymnosperms are : 87. The cells lining the blood vessels belongs to the
category of : 88. The plasma membrane consists mainly of – 89. The main area of variuos types of activites of a
cell is – 90. Which one of the following has its own DNA? 91. Which one of the following structures between
two adjacent cells is an effective transport
pathway? 92. Which stages of cell division do the following
figures A and B represent respectively?
Chemistry
1. The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic gas is (NA = 6.02 $$ \times $$ 1023 mol$$-$$1) 2. 25.3 g of sodium carbonate, Na2CO3 is dissolved in enough water to make 250 mL of solution. If sodium carbonate dissocia 3. The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following isoelectronic species is 4. Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with negative sign for the elem 5. Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions? 6. In which of the following pairs of molecules/ ions, the central atoms have sp2 hybridisation ? 7. In which one of the following species the central atom has the type of hybridization which is not the same as that prese 8. For an endothermic reaction, energy of activation is Ea and enthalpy of reaction is $$\Delta $$H (both of these in kJ/mo 9. Standard entropies of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 J K$$-$$1 mol$$-$$1 respectively. For the reaction
1/2X2 + 3/2Y 10. If pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12, the value of its Ksp is 11. In a buffer solution containing equal concentration of B$$-$$ and HB, the Kb for B$$-$$ is 10$$-$$10. The pH of buffe 12. In which of the following equilibrium Kc and Kp are not equal? 13. What is [H+] in mol/L of a solution that is 0.20 M in CH3COONa and 0.10 M in CH3COOH? Ka for CH3COOH = 1.8 $$ \times $ 14. Which one of the following is most reactive towards electrophilic reagent? 15. In the following the most stable conformation of n-butane is 16. Liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbons by 17. The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3 gives X and reaction in presence of light gives Y. Thus, X and Y a 18. In a set of reactions, ethylbenzene yielded a product D.
D would be 19. Which one is most reactive towards SN1 reaction? 20. The correct order of increasing reactivity of
C$$-$$X bond towards nucleophile in the following compounds is 21. Given are cyclohexanol (I), acetic acid (II), 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol (III) and phenol (IV). In these the order of decrea 22. Among the following four compounds
(i) Phenol
(ii) Methyl phenol
(iii) Meta-nitropheno 23. Which of the following compounds has the most acidic nature? 24. Acetamide is treated with the following reagents separately. Which one of these would yield methyl amine? 25. Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon-carbon bonds? 26. Among the given compounds, the most susceptible to nucleophilic attack at the carbonyl group is 27. Which of the following statements about primary amines is false? 28. Aniline in a set of the following reactions yielded a coloured product Y.
The structure of 'Y' would be 29. Which one of the following does not exhibit the phenomenon of mutaroation? 30. A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol$$-$$) has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in 1000 g of water 31. An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. Which change will cause the vapour pressure of the solution to increase? 32. For the reduction of silver ions with copper metal, the standard cell potential was found to be + 0.46 V at 25oC. The va 33. An increase in equivalent conductance of a strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to 34. For the reaction N2O5(g) $$ \to $$ 2NO2(g) + 1/2O2(g) the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is given a 35. During the kinetic study of the reaction, 2A + B $$ \to $$ C + D, following results were obtained
.tg {border-collapse 36. Which one of the following molecular hydrides acts as a Lewis acid? 37. The tendency of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 to behave as Lewis acid decreases in the sequence 38. Oxidation states of P in H4P2O5, H4P2O6, H4P2O7 are respectively 39. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following species is 40. Which of the following ions will exhibit colour in aqueous solutions? 41. Which of the following pairs has the same size? 42. Which of the following ions has electronic configuration [Ar]3d6?
(At. nos. Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28) 43. The existance of two different coloured complexes with the composition of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ is due to 44. Crystal field stabilization energy for high spin d4 octahedral complex is 45. Which of the following complex ions is not expected to absorb visible light? 46. Which one of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism?
Physics
1. The dimension of $${1 \over 2}{\varepsilon _0}{E^2}$$, where $${\varepsilon _0}$$ is permittivity of free space and E is 2. A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation x = (t + 5)$$-$$1. The acceleration of particle is proport 3. A ball is dropped from a high rise platform at t = 0 starting from rest. After 6 seconds another ball is thrown downward 4. A particle has initial velocity $$\left( {3\widehat i + 4\widehat j} \right)$$ and has acceleration $$\left( {0.4\wideha 5. Six vectors, $$\overrightarrow a $$ through $$\overrightarrow f $$ have the magnitudes and directions indicated in the f 6. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure.
The coefficient of static friction between the b 7. A ball moving with velocity 2 m/s collides head on with another stationary ball of double the mass. If the coefficient o 8. An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity of 2 m/s. The mas 9. A circular disk of moment of inertia $${I_t}$$ is rotating in a horizontal plane, about its symmetry axis, with a consta 10. Two particles which are initially at rest, move towards each other under the action of their internal attraction. If the 11. A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity $$\omega $$. A coin is placed at a distance r from the centre 12. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of a spherical shell of same mass and radius a. The magnitude of the grav 13. The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B of the earth, are 4R and R, respectively. If the speed of satelli 14. A man of 50 kg mass is standing in a gravity free space at a height of 10 m above the floor. He throws a stone of 0.5 kg 15. A cylindrical metallic rod in thermal contact with two reservoirs of heat at its two ends conducts an amount of heat Q i 16. The total radiant energy per unit area, normal to the direction of incidence, received at a distance R from the centre o 17. Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of radius r, radiating like a black body at temperature toC, the powe 18. If $$\Delta $$U and $$\Delta $$W represent the increase in internal energy and work done by the system respectively in a 19. The displacement of a particle along the x-axis is given by x = asin2$$\omega $$t. The motion of the particle correspond 20. The period of oscillation of a mass M suspended from a strong of negligible mass is T. If along with it another mass M i 21. A transverse wave is represented by
y = Asin($$\omega $$t $$-$$ kx). For what value of the wavelength is the wave veloc 22. A tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz makes 4 beats per second with the vibrating string of a piano. The beat frequency decr 23. A square surface of side L meter in the plane of the paper is placed in a uniform electric field $$E$$(volt/m) acting al 24. Two positives ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of repulsion between the 25. A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of value C1, is charged by a source of potential difference 4V. When another 26. Consider the following two statements.
(A) Kirchoff's junction law follows from the conservation of charge. 27. A potentiometer circuit is set up as shown. The potential gradient, across the potentiometer wire, is k volt/cm and the 28. Charge q is uniformly spread on a thin ring of radius R. The ring rotates about its axis with a uniform frequency $$f$$ 29. A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 ohm and gives a full scale deflection for 30 mA current. If it is to work as 30. A galvanometer has a coil of resistance 100 ohm and gives a full scale deflection for 30 mA current. If it is to work as 31. A square current carrying loop is suspended in a uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the loop. If the force on 32. Electromagnets are made of soft iron because soft iron has 33. A vibration magnetometer placed in magnetic meridian has a small bar magnet. The magnet executes oscillations with a ti 34. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T with its plane perpendicular to the loop. 35. In the given circuit the reading of voltmeter V1 and V2 are 300 volts each. The reading of the voltmeter V3 and ammeter 36. A 220 volt input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of 2.0 ampere at 440 volts. If the eff 37. Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves ? 38. A lens having focal length f and aperture of diameter d forms an image of intensity I. Aperture of diameter $${d \over 2 39. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of refractive index $$\mu $$, falls on a surface separating the medium 40. A beam of cathode rays is subjected to crossed electric (E) and magnetic fields (B). The fields are adjusted such that t 41. The potential difference that must be applied to stop the fastest photoelectrons emitted by a nickel surface, having wor 42. A source S1 is producing, 1015 photons per second of wavelength 5000 $$\mathop A\limits^ \circ $$. Another source S2 is 43. The mass of a $${}_3^7Li$$ Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The binding energy 44. The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is $$-$$ 13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the first excited state 45. The energy of a hydrogen atom in the ground state is $$-$$ 13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion in the first excited state w 46. An alpha nucleus of energy $${1 \over 2}$$ mv2 bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of close 47. To get an output Y = 1 in given circuit which of the following input will be correct ?
48. Which one of the following statement is false ? 49. The device that can act as a complete electronic circuit is 50. Which one of the following bonds produces a solid that reflects light in the visible region and whose electrical conduc
1
AIPMT 2010 Prelims
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which one of the following is used as vector for
cloning genes into higher organisms ?
A
Retrovirus
B
Salmonella typhimurium
C
Rhizopus nigricans
D
Baculovirus
2
AIPMT 2010 Prelims
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which –
A
recognize a specific nucleotide sequence for
binding of DNA ligase
B
remove nucleotides from the ends of the
DNA molecule
C
restrict the action of the enzyme DNA
polymerase
D
make cuts at specific positions within the
DNA molecule
3
AIPMT 2010 Prelims
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Which of the following are used in gene
cloning ?
A
Mesosomes
B
Nucleoids
C
Lomasomes
D
Plasmids
4
AIPMT 2010 Prelims
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed
for –
A
Purification of the product
B
Availability of oxygen throughout the
process
C
Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture
vessel
D
Addition of preservatives to the product
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
92
Chemistry
46
Physics
50
More papers of NEET
NEET 2024 (Re-Examination)
NEET 2024
NEET 2023 Manipur
NEET 2023
NEET 2022 Phase 2
NEET 2022 Phase 1
NEET 2021
NEET 2020 Phase 1
NEET 2019
NEET 2018
NEET 2017
NEET 2016 Phase 2
NEET 2016 Phase 1
AIPMT 2015
AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper
AIPMT 2014
NEET 2013 (Karnataka)
NEET 2013
AIPMT 2012 Mains
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
AIPMT 2011 Mains
AIPMT 2011 Prelims
AIPMT 2010 Mains
AIPMT 2010 Prelims
AIPMT 2009
AIPMT 2008
AIPMT 2007
AIPMT 2006
AIPMT 2005
AIPMT 2004
AIPMT 2003
AIPMT 2002
AIPMT 2001
AIPMT 2000
NEET
Papers
2020
2014
2009
2008
2007
2006
2005
2004
2003
2002
2001
2000