Biology
1. One of the most important functions of botanical gardens is that 2. All of the following statements concerning the actinomycetous filamentous soil bacterium Frankia are correct except that 3. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is 4. Basophilic prokaryotes 5. There exists a close association between the alga and the fungus within a lichen. The fungus 6. Auxospores and hormogonia are formed, respectively, by 7. Match items in column $${\rm I}$$ with those in column $${\rm I}$$$${\rm I}$$.
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-sp 8. Ectophloic siphonostele is found in 9. Top-shaped multiciliate male gametes and the nature seed which bears only one embryo with two cotyledons, are characteri 10. In contrast to annelids the platyhelminthes show 11. From the following statements select the wrong one 12. Which of the following unicellular organisms has a macronucleus for trophic function and one or more micronuclei for re 13. Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class mammalia? 14. Why is vivipary an undesirable character for annual crop plants? 15. Which of the following represents the edible part of the fruit of litchi? 16. Enzymes, vitamins and hormones can be classified into a single category of biological chemicals, because all of these 17. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by the 18. Which one of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct? 19. Which of the following is the simplest amino acid? 20. Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids. Each nucleotide is a composite molecule formed by 21. Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolescule on earth, are produced by 22. At what stage of the cell cycle are histone proteins synthesized in a eukaryotic cell? 23. As compared to a C3-plant, how many additional molecules of ATP are needed for net production of one molecule of hexose 24. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less limited by atmospheric CO2 levels because 25. Photosynthetic Active Radiation (PAR) has the following range of wavelengths. 26. During which stage in the complete oxidation of glucose are the greatest number of ATP molecules formed from ADP? 27. The ability of the Venus Flytrap to capture insects is due to 28. The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is 29. In ornithine cycle, which of the following wastes are removed from the blood? 30. A person is undergoing prolonged fasting. His urine will be found to contain abnormal quantities of 31. An acromian process is characteristically found in the 32. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? 33. Which one of the following is the example of the action of the autonomous nervous system? 34. Parkinson's disease (characterized by tremors and progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused by degeneration of brain neur 35. In a man, abducens nerve is injured. Which one of the following functions will be affected? 36. In a type of apomixis known as advice embryony, embryos develop directly from the 37. Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the pollen tube enter the embryo sac? 38. Which one of the following represents an ovule, where the embryo sac becomes horse-shoe shaped and the funiculus and mic 39. Grey crescent is the area - 40. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which
one of the following is unlikely 41. In order to find out the different types of
gametes produced by a pea plants having the
genotype AaBb, it should be cros 42. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated
with haemolysis of - 43. A man and a woman, who do not show any
apparent signs of a certain inherited disease,
have seven children (2 daughter an 44. A women with 47 chromosomes due to three
copies of chromosome 21 is characterized by - 45. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human
males than in human females because - 46. A woman with normal vision, but whose father
was colour bind, marries a colour blind man.
Suppose that the fourth child 47. Which of the following is not a hereditary
disease ? 48. E. coli cells with a mustard z gene of the lac
operon cannot grow in medium containing only
lactose as the source of ene 49. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a - 50. Using imprints from a plate with complete
medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you
can select streptomycin resistant 51. Which one of the following hydrolyses internal
phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain ? 52. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs - 53. Which one of the following makes use of RNA
as a template to synthesize DNA - 54. During transcription holoenzyme RNA
polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and the
DNA assumes a saddle like structure at th 55. De Vries gave his mutation theory on organic
evolution while working on - 56. Which one of the following experiments
suggests that simplest living organisms could
not have originated spontaneously f 57. There are two opposing views about origin of
modern man. According to one view Homo
erectus in Asia were the ancestors o 58. Which one of the following phenomena supports
Darwin's concept of natural selection in organic
evolution ? 59. Which of the following is not true for a species ? 60. At a particular locus, frequency of 'A' allele is
0.6 and that of 'a' is 0.4. What would be the
frequency of heterozygot 61. Which of the following is the relatively most
accurate method for dating of fossils ? 62. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to
63. Which one of the following depresses brain
activity and produces feelings of calmness,
relaxation and drowsiness ? 64. The world's highly prized wool yielding
'Pashmina' breed is - 65. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been
used for designing novel - 66. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future
with the following improved trait - 67. Production of a human protein in bacteria by
genetic engineering is possible because 68. More than 70% of world's fresh water is
contained in – 69. At which latitude, heat gain through insolation
approximately equals heat loss through
terrestrial radiation - 70. Which one of the following pairs in
mismatched ? 71. Animals have the innate ability to escape from
predation. Examples for the same are given
below. Select the incorrect ex 72. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the
Parliament in the year - 73. According to IUCN Red List, what is the status
of Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens) ? 74. In a woody dicotyledonous tree, which of the
following parts will mainly consist of primary
tissues ? 75. Four healthy people in their twenties got
involved in injuries resulting in damage and
death of a few cell of the follow 76. A student wishes to study the cell structure under
a light microscope having 10X eyepiece and 45X
objective. He should i 77. Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in 78. Centromere is required for - 79. Chemiosmotic theory of ATP synthesis in the
chloroplasts and mitochondria is based on
80. According to widely accepted "fluid mosaic
model" cell membranes are semi-fluid, where
lipids and integral proteins can 81. The main organelle involved in modification and
routing of newly synthesized proteins to their
destinations is - 82. A women with 47 chromosomes due to three
copies of chromosome 21 is characterized by
Chemistry
1. The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is $$-$$328 kJ mol$$-$$1; hence the energy of fourth Bohr orbit wou 2. Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign) of t 3. The correct order in which the O $$-$$ O bond length increases in the following is 4. Which of the following molecules has trigonal planar geometry? 5. The surface tension of which of the following liquid is maximum ? 6. Which of the following pairs of a chemical reaction is certain to result in a spontaneous reaction ? 7. A reaction occurs spontaneously if 8. The absolute enthalpy of neutralisation of the reaction :
Mg(O)(s) + 2HCl(aq) $$ \to $$ MgCl2(aq) + H2O(l) will be 9. H2S gas when passed through a solution of cations containing HCl precipitates the cations of second group of qualitative 10. At 25oC, the dissociation constant of a base, BOH, is 1.0 $$ \times $$ 10$$-$$12. The concentration of hydroxyl ions in 11. Equilibrium constants K1 and K2 for the following equilibriam:
are related as 12. Which one of the following pairs represents stereoisomerism? 13. Which of the following undergoes nucleophilic substitution exclusively by SN1 mechanism? 14. Which amongst the following is the most stable carbocation? 15. The chirality of the compound
16. Names of some compounds are given. Which one is not in IUPAC system? 17. The best method for the separation of naphthalene and benzoic acid from their mixture is 18. Products of the following reaction :
19. Which one of the following alkenes will react faster with H2 under catalytic hydrogenation conditions ? 20. Which one of the following compounds is most acidic? 21. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by 22. The major organic product formed from the following reaction :
is 23. In a set of reactions acetic acid yielded a product D.
The structure of D would be 24. Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly acidic medium gives 25. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product D.
The structure of the product D would be 26. The cell membranes are mainly composed of 27. Which functional group participates in disulphide bond formation in proteins? 28. The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous solution is 29. The vapour pressure of two liquids P and Q are 80 and 60 torr, respectively. The total vapour pressure of solution obtai 30. A solution has a 1 : 4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. The vapour pressures of the pure hydrocarbons at 20oC are 440 mm 31. A solution of urea (mol. mass 56 g mol$$-$$1) boils at 100.18oC at the atmospheric pressure. If Kf and Kb for water are 32. 4.5 g of aluminium (at. mass 27 amu) is deposited at cathode from Al3+ solution by a certain quantity of electric charge 33. The mass of carbon anode consumed (giving only carbon dioxide) in the production of 270 kg of aluminium metal from bauxi 34. The rate of reaction between two reactions A and B decreases by a factor of 4 if the concentration of reactant B is doub 35. For a first order reaction A $$ \to $$ B the reaction rate a reactant concentration of 0.01 M is found to be 2.0 $$ \tim 36. Which one of the following oxides is expected to exhibit paramagnetic behaviour? 37. Which of the following would have a permanent dipole moment? 38. What is the correct relationship between the pH of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide, Na2O (pH1), sodium sulphide, Na2S 39. More number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than by the lanthanoids. The main reason for this is 40. The number of moles of KMnO4 reduced by one mole of KI in alkaline medium is 41. The aqueous solution containing which one of the following ions will be colourless?
(Atomic number : Sc = 21, Fe = 26, 42. Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with their atomic numbers. Which one of th 43. A nuclide of an alkaline earth metal undergoes radioactive decay by emission of the periodic table to which the resultin 44. Which one of the following is an inner orbital complex as well as diamagnetic in behaviour? 45. Which one of the following is expected to exhibit optical isomerism? (en = ethylenediamine) 46. Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given acids?
Physics
1. The ratio of the dimensions of Planck's constant and that of moment of inertia is the dimensions of 2. A ball is thrown vertically upward. It has a speed of 10 m/sec when it has reached one half of its maximum height. How h 3. The displacement x of a particle varies with time t as x = ae$$-$$at + be$$\beta $$t, where a, b, $$\alpha $$ and $$\bet 4. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground where AB = a. The boy at B starts running in a direction perpen 5. A stone tied to the end of a string of 1 m long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone 6. If the angle between the vectors $$\overrightarrow A $$ and $$\overrightarrow B $$ is $$\theta $$, the value of the pro 7. If a vector $$2\widehat i + 3\widehat j + 8\widehat k$$ is perpendicular to the vector $$4\widehat j - 4\widehat i + \al 8. A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg. The velocity of 18 kg mass is 6 m s$$-$ 9. A force F acting
on an object varies with distance x as shown here. The force is in N and x in m. The work done by the 10. A drum of radius R and mass M, rolls down without slipping along an inclined plane of angle $$\theta $$. The frictional 11. The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass M about an axis passing from the edge of the disc 12. Two bodies have their moments of inertia I and 2I respectively about their axis of rotation. If their kinetic energies o 13. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is 14. Imagine a new planet having the same density as that of earth but it is 3 times bigger than the earth in size. If the ac 15. Which of the following rods, (given radius r and length $$l$$) each made of the same material and whose ends are maintai 16. An ideal gas heat engine operates in Carnot cycle between 227oC and 127oC. It absorbs 6 $$ \times $$ 104 cal of heat at 17. Which of the following processes is reversible? 18. The circular motion of a particle with constant speed is 19. A point source emits sound equally in all directions in a non-absorbing medium. Two points P and Q are at distances of 2 20. A network of four capacitors of capacity equal to C1 = C, C2 = 2C, C3 = 3C and C4 = 4C are connected to a battery as sho 21. As per the diagram a point charge +q is placed at the origin O. Work done in taking another point charge $$-$$Q from th 22. Two charges q1 and q2 are placed 30 cm apart, as shown in the figure. A third charge q3 is moved along the arc of a cir 23. Two batteries, one of emf 18 volts and internal resistance 2 $$\Omega $$ and the other of emf 12 volts and internal resi 24. When a wire of uniform cross-section $$a$$ length $$l$$ and resistance R is bent into a complete circle. resistance betw 25. For the network shown in the figure the value of the current $$i$$ is
26. A 5-ampere fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of 1 watt in the circuit. The resistance of the fuse wire is 27. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It producess a magnetic field B at the centre of the circl 28. A very long straight wire carries a current $$I$$. At the instant when a charge +Q at point P has velocity $$\overrighta 29. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side $$l$$ is suspended between the pole pieces of a permanent magnet 30. If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material and ferromagnetic material are d 31. As a result of change in the magnetic flux linked to the closed loop as shown in the figure, an e.m.f. $$V$$ volt is ind 32. In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of frquency $$f.$$ The current leads 33. If $$\lambda $$v, $$\lambda $$x and $$\lambda $$m represent the wavelengths of visible light, X-rays and microwaves resp 34. The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter telescope at a wavelength of 5000 $$\mathop A\limits^ \circ $$ is of the ord 35. The work functions for metals A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5 eV. According to Einstein's equation the 36. A photosensitive metallic surface has work function, h$$\upsilon $$0. If photons of energy $$2h{\upsilon _0}$$ fall on t 37. In the reaction $${}_1^2$$H + $${}_1^3$$H $$ \to $$ $${}_2^4$$He + $${}_0^1$$n, if the binding energies of $${}_1^2$$ H, 38. The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is about $$-$$ 3.4 eV. Its kinetic energy in 39. In any fission process the ratio
mass of fission products
mass of parent nucleus
is 40. Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding energy per nucleon in them 41. Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom corresponding to increasing values of energy i.e. EA < EB < EC. If $$ 42. Choose the only false statement from the following. 43. Application of a forward bias to a p-n junction 44. Zener diode is used for 45. Carbon, silicon and germanium atoms have four valence electrons each. Their valence and conduction bands are separated b 46. Copper has face centered cubic (fcc) lattice with interatomic spacing equal to 2.54 $$\mathop A\limits^ \circ $$. The v 47. In a p-n junction photo cell, the value of the photo-electromotive force profuced by monochromatic light is proportional
1
AIPMT 2005
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
A photosensitive metallic surface has work function, h$$\upsilon $$0. If photons of energy $$2h{\upsilon _0}$$ fall on this surface, the electrons come out with a maximum velocity of 4 $$ \times $$ 106 m/s. When the photon energy is increased to 5 h$$\upsilon $$0, then maximum velocity of photoelectrons will be
A
2 $$ \times $$ 107 m/s
B
2 $$ \times $$ 106 m/s
C
8 $$ \times $$ 106 m/s
D
8 $$ \times $$ 105 m/s
2
AIPMT 2005
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
In the reaction $${}_1^2$$H + $${}_1^3$$H $$ \to $$ $${}_2^4$$He + $${}_0^1$$n, if the binding
energies of $${}_1^2$$ H, $${}_1^3$$H and $${}_2^4$$He are respectively a, b and c (in MeV),
then the energy (in MeV) released in this reaction is
energies of $${}_1^2$$ H, $${}_1^3$$H and $${}_2^4$$He are respectively a, b and c (in MeV),
then the energy (in MeV) released in this reaction is
A
a + b + c
B
a + b $$-$$ c
C
c $$-$$ a $$-$$ b
D
c + a $$-$$ b
3
AIPMT 2005
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is about $$-$$ 3.4 eV. Its kinetic energy in this state is
A
3.4 eV
B
6.8 eV
C
$$-$$ 3.4 eV
D
$$-$$ 6.8 eV
4
AIPMT 2005
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1
In any fission process the ratio
mass of fission products
mass of parent nucleus
is A
equal to 1
B
greater than 1
C
less than 1
D
depends on the mass of the parent nucleus.
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
82
Chemistry
46
Physics
47
More papers of NEET
NEET 2024 (Re-Examination)
NEET 2024
NEET 2023 Manipur
NEET 2023
NEET 2022 Phase 2
NEET 2022 Phase 1
NEET 2021
NEET 2020 Phase 1
NEET 2019
NEET 2018
NEET 2017
NEET 2016 Phase 2
NEET 2016 Phase 1
AIPMT 2015
AIPMT 2015 Cancelled Paper
AIPMT 2014
NEET 2013 (Karnataka)
NEET 2013
AIPMT 2012 Mains
AIPMT 2012 Prelims
AIPMT 2011 Mains
AIPMT 2011 Prelims
AIPMT 2010 Mains
AIPMT 2010 Prelims
AIPMT 2009
AIPMT 2008
AIPMT 2007
AIPMT 2006
AIPMT 2005
AIPMT 2004
AIPMT 2003
AIPMT 2002
AIPMT 2001
AIPMT 2000
NEET
Papers
2020
2014
2009
2008
2007
2006
2005
2004
2003
2002
2001
2000