Biology
1. Biomagnification can be defined as 2. Leaf tendrils are found in 3. Diagram of large intestine is given below.
Identify the parts A, B, C, D, E and F.
4. Select the incorrect statement(s) from the options given below with respect to dihybrid cross.
I. Tightly linked genes o 5. Match the stages of meiosis in column I to
their characteristic features in Column II and
select the correct option usin 6. Read the following statements
I. Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.
II. Ste 7. Characteristics of cancer are 8. Select the incorrect match.
I. Sedimentary nutrient cycle-Nitrogen cycle
II. Pioneer species - Lichens
III. Secondary su 9. Apical dominance is caused by 10. Consider the following four measures (I-IV) that could be taken to successfully grow chickpea in an area where bacterial 11. Match the organisms given in Column I to
their functions given in Column II and
choose the correct option.
.tg {border 12. A plant has a butterfly-shaped flower with
one standard, two wing like and two keel
petals. To which family, this plant 13. Identify the permanent tissues shown in the
following figures
14. Find the correct statements from the following
I. Gene therapy is a genetic engineering technique used to treat diseases 15. A mutant plant is unable to produce materials or precursors that form Casparian strip. This plant would be 16. Cell A has osmotic pressure of $$-$$20 bars and pressure potential of 5 bars, whereas cell B has osmotic pressure of $$- 17. If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for ampicillin resistance is transferred into E. coli cells and the host cells are spr 18. Adults of Wuchereria bancrofti attack 19. Which of the following pathways occurs through cell wall? 20. Which of the following plants are used to treat bone fractures? 21. $$\mathrm{C}_4$$ pathway is advantageous over $$\mathrm{C}_3$$ pathway in plants, because it 22. Production of human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible because 23. Choose the correct statements with reference to organic evolution.
I. Flippers of whale and wings of bat exhibit analogy 24. Triticale is the first man-made cereal crop. Mention the type of hybridisation through which it was produced. 25. Azolla is used as a biofertiliser because it 26. Person 'A' cannot step out of his house. He has to spend his entire life in sterile isolation otherwise, he would quickl 27. The peppered moth (Biston betularia), the black-coloured form becomes dominant over the light-coloured form of moth in E 28. A normal woman whose father was colourblind, marries a normal man. What kinds of children can be expected and in what pr 29. From the graph of population growth, select the correct option having correct value of '$$r$$' and bar graph.
30. What is true about the isolated small tribal populations? 31. Codons of glycine are 32. Which one of the following organisms do not evolve oxygen during photosynthesis? 33. Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins? 34. Match Column I (Antibiotic) with Column II
(Source) and choose the correct option from
the codes given below.
.tg {bor 35. Arrange in correct order according to the
given figures.
36. cry II Ab and cry I Ab produce toxins that control 37. Match the following columns.
.tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;}
.tg td{border-color:black;border-style:s 38. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex? 39. Read the following statements
I. Colostrum is recommended for the new borns because it is rich in antigens.
II. Chikungu 40. A scion is grafted to a stock. The quality of
fruits produced will be determined by the
genotype of 41. Assertion Nitrogen-fixing bacteria of
legume root nodules survive in oxygen
depleted cells.
Reason Leghaemoglobin comple 42. Assertion Cytochrome oxidase enzyme
contains copper.
Reason Cyanide combines with copper of
cytochrome oxide and prevent 43. Assertion In females, parturition is the act
of giving birth to a baby.
Reason Signals for parturition originate
from a 44. Assertion Meiotic division occurs in
reproductive cells.
Reason Synapsis occurs during zygotene of
meiosis. 45. Assertion Peptide and polypeptide
hormones directly pass across the lipid
bilayer of plasma membrane.
Reason Oxytocin ho 46. Assertion In apomixis, the plants of new
genetic sequence are produced.
Reason In apomixis, two organisms of
same geneti 47. Assertion : The quiescent centre acts as a
reservoir of relatively resistant cells, which
constitute a permanent source 48. Assertion Two turns of Krebs’ cycle occur
per glucose molecule used.
Reason Each turn of Krebs’ cycle produces
3 NADH, 1 49. Assertion Alcoholics may show deficiency
symptoms of Wernicke’s and Korsakoff’s
syndromes.
Reason Alcohol acts as depres 50. Assertion : BOD is an indicator of pollution
in water.
Reason : High BOD is observed in highly
polluted water. 51. Assertion Pork should be properly cooked to avoid Taenia infection.
Reason Pork of pig contains hexacanth and cysticercu 52. Assertion Magnesium is important in photosynthesis and carbohydrate metabolism.
Reason $$\mathrm{Mg}^{2+}$$ is involved 53. Assertion Phenylketonuria is recessive
hereditary disease caused by body’s failure to
oxidise an amino acid phenylalanin 54. Assertion Caryopsis fruits differ from
typical achenes with respect to the fusion of
pericarp with the seed-coat (testa) 55. Assertion : The collenchyma is a thick-walled
living tissue.
Reason : The collenchyma is thickened due
to deposition of 56. Assertion In mitosis, two identical cells are
produced from a single cell and karyokinesis
is followed by cytokinesis.
R 57. Assertion Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
occurs in the stroma of chloroplasts.
Reason There is discontinuous flow of
el 58. Assertion Taenia solium and Dugesia belong
to Platyhelminthes.
Reason : Platyhelminthes are coelomates. 59. Assertion The non-allelic genes for red hair
and prickles are usually inherited together.
Reason The genes for red hair 60. Assertion Photomodulation of flower is
phytochrome regulated process.
Reason Active form of phytochrome (Pfr)
directly i
Chemistry
1. In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat
takes place between system and
surroundings. Choose the correct option for
2. Which of the following represents
Wurtz-Fittig reaction? 3. The work function of a metal is $$4.2 \mathrm{~eV}$$. If radiation of 2000 $$\mathop A\limits^o$$ fall on the metal then 4. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds
towards nucleophilic substitution are in the
order of 5. Food preservatives prevent spoilage of food due to microbial growth. The most commonly used preservatives are 6. Among the following statements, the correct statement about the half-life period for a first order reaction is 7. The electronic configuration of central metal atom/ion in $$\left[\mathrm{Co}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]^{3-}$$ is 8. A bromoalkane '$$X$$' reacts with magnesium in dry ether to form compound '$$Y$$'. The reaction of '$$Y$$' with methanol 9. The spin only magnetic moment of $$[\mathrm{MnBr}_4]^{2-}$$ is $$5.9 \mathrm{~BM}$$. The geometry of this complex ion is 10. At equilibrium, the concentration of
$$\begin{gathered}
\mathrm{N}_2=3.0 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{M} \\
\mathrm{O}_2=4.2 \ 11. Which of the following is an example of network solid? 12. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group
from fluorine to iodine. Which of the
halogen acids should have highest bon 13. Which of the following compound has same
oxidation state of the central metal atom in
the cationic and anionic part? 14. The rate constant for the first order
decomposition of a certain reaction is
described by the equation $$\ln k\left(\mat 15. In which of the following arrangements, the
order is not strictly according to the property
written against it? 16. For a $$\mathrm{Ag}-\mathrm{Zn}$$ button cell, net reaction is
$$\begin{gathered}
\mathrm{Zn}(s)+\mathrm{Ag}_2 \mathrm{O 17. Which of the following oxyacid does not contain $$\mathrm{P}-\mathrm{O}-\mathrm{P}$$ bond? 18. Niobium crystallises in body centred cubic structure. If density is $$8.55 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~cm}^{-3}$$, then the ato 19. The IUPAC name of the complex $$[\mathrm{Pt}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{Br}\left(\mathrm{NO}_2\right) \mathrm{C 20. When an excess and a very dilute aqueous
solution of KI is added to very dilute
aqueous solution of silver nitrate. The
21. $$\mathop {8N{H_3}}\limits_{(Excess)} + 3C{l_2}\buildrel {} \over
\longrightarrow X$$
$$N{H_3} + \mathop {3C{l_2}}\lim 22. The ionic radii $$(\mathop A\limits^o)$$ of $$\mathrm{C}^{4-}$$ and $$\mathrm{O}^{2-}$$ respectively are 2.60 and 1.40. 23. Which of the following products will be obtained when copper metal is reacted with $$\mathrm{HNO}_3$$ ? 24. A gas ‘X’ is used in filling balloons for
meteorological observations. It is also used
in gas-cooled nuclear reactors. H 25. A solid has a structure in which W atoms are
located at the corners of a cubic lattice.
O atoms at the centre of edges a 26. Benzoic acid undergoes dimerisation in benzene solution. The van't Hoff factor $$(i)$$ is related to the degree of assoc 27.
X and Y respectively are 28. At $$25^{\circ} \mathrm{C}$$, the molar conductance at infinite dilution for the strong electrolytes $$\mathrm{NaOH}, \m 29.
In the above reaction sequence, $$X$$ is 30. The correct order of spin only magnetic moment (in BM) for $$\mathrm{Mn}^{2+}, \mathrm{Cr}^{2+}$$ and $$\mathrm{Ti}^{2+} 31. Which of the following compounds do not
undergo aldol condensation? 32. A green yellow gas reacts with an alkali
metal hydroxide to form a halate which can
be used in fireworks and safety matc 33. The correct order of decreasing stability of
the following carbocation is
34. Hydrolysis of sucrose with dilute aqueous
sulphuric acid yields 35. Among the following complex ions, the one
which shows geometrical isomerism will be 36. $$\Delta H$$ and $$\Delta E$$ for the reaction,
$$\mathrm{Fe}_2 \mathrm{O}_3(s)+3 \mathrm{H}_2(g) \longrightarrow 2 \mat 37. The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is
38. Among the following rules, the one which is
applied in the given reaction is
$$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CHBrCH}_2 \mathrm{C 39. The solubility product of sparingly soluble salt $$A X_2$$ is $$3.2 \times 10^{-11}$$. Its solubility (in mol/L) is 40. The structure of $$\mathrm{IF}_7,$$ is 41. Assertion (A) Micelles are formed by
surfactant molecules above the critical
micellar concentration (CMC).
Reason (R) Th 42. Assertion (A) : The pH of acid rain is less
than 5.6.
Reason (R) : Carbon dioxide present in the
atmosphere dissolves in 43. Assertion (A) Electron gain enthalpy
becomes less negative as we go down a group.
Reason (R) Size of the atom increases 44. Assertion (A) Among the two $$\mathrm{O}-\mathrm{H}$$ bonds in $$\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}$$ molecule, the energy required 45. Assertion (A) : Nitration of benzene with
nitric acid requires the use of concentrated
sulphuric acid.
Reason (R) : The 46. Assertion (A) Beryllium carbonate is kept
in the atmosphere of carbon dioxide.
Reason (R) Beryllium carbonate is unstabl 47. Assertion (A) Separation of Zr and Hf is
difficult.
Reason (R) Zr and Hf lie in the same group
of the periodic table. 48. Assertion (A) Toxic metal ions are removed
by the chelating ligands.
Reason (R) Chelate complexes tend to be
more stable 49. Assertion (A) IUPAC name of the compound
Reason (R) In IUPAC nomenclature, ether is regarded as hydrocarbon derivative 50. Assertion (A) The reaction
$$\begin{aligned}
2 \mathrm{NO}+\mathrm{O}_2 & \longrightarrow 2 \mathrm{NO}_2 \\
\text { and 51. Assertion (A) The boiling points of alkyl halides decrease in the order $$R \mathrm{I}>R \mathrm{Br}>\mathrm{RCl}>\mathr 52. Assertion (A) $$\mathrm{N}_2$$ is less reactive than $$\mathrm{P}_4$$.
Reason (R) Nitrogen has more electron gain enthal 53. Assertion (A) The molecular mass of the
polymers cannot be calculated using the
boiling point or freezing point method.
54. Assertion (A) $$\mathrm{NaCl}$$ reacts with concentrated $$\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4$$ to give colourless fumes with pu 55. Assertion (A) $$K_p$$ can be equal to or less than or even greater than the value of $$K_C$$.
Reason (R) $$K_p=K_C(R T)^ 56. Assertion (A) $$\mathrm{CH}_4$$ does not react with $$\mathrm{Cl}_2$$ in dark.
Reason (R) Chlorination of $$\mathrm{CH}_ 57. Assertion (A) $$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{OH}$$ and $$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{OH}$$ can be distinguished by halo 58. Assertion (A) For a Daniell cell $$\mathrm{Zn} / \mathrm{Zn}^{2+} \| \mathrm{Cu}^{2+} \mid \mathrm{Cu}$$ with $$E_{\text 59. Assertion (A) Most of the synthetic
polymers are not biodegradable.
Reason (R) Polymerisation process induces
toxic poly 60. Assertion (A) Graphite is an example of tetragonal crystal system.
Reason (R) For a tetragonal system, $$a=b \neq c$$ an
Physics
1. A wooden wedge of mass $$M$$ and inclination angle $$(\alpha)$$ rest on a smooth floor. A block of mass $m$ is kept on w 2. A piece of ice slides down a rough inclined plane at $$45^{\circ}$$ inclination in twice the time that it takes to slide 3. A body of mass 5 kg is suspended by a spring
balance on an inclined plane as shown in
figure.
So, force applied on spri 4.
In the figure, blocks A and B of
masses 2m and m are connected
with a string and system is hanged
vertically with the h 5. If the formula, $$X=3 Y Z^2, X$$ and $$Z$$ have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic induction. The dimensions of $$Y$ 6. The figure shows a mass $$m$$ on a frictionless surface. It is connected to rigid wall by the mean of a massless spring 7. Body of mass M is much heavier than the
other body of mass m. The heavier body with
speed v collides with the lighter bo 8. A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its centre. An insect is at rest at a 9. Three bodies having masses $$5 \mathrm{~kg}, 4 \mathrm{~kg}$$ and $$2 \mathrm{~kg}$$ is moving at the speed of $$5 \math 10. Two satellites $$A$$ and $$B$$ revolve round the same planet in coplanar circular orbits lying in the same plane. Their 11. A planet is revolving around the sun in a circular orbit with a radius $$r$$. The time period is $$T$$. If the force bet 12. The weight of a body on the surface of the
earth is 63 N. What is the gravitational force
on it due to the earth at a he 13. A block of rectangular size of mass $$m$$ and area of cross-section $$A$$, floats in a liquid of density $$\rho$$. If we 14. A steel rod 100 cm long is damped at into
middle. The fundamental frequency of
longitudinal vibrations of the rod are gi 15. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one
end. Find the number of possible natural
oscillations of air column in the pip 16.
An ideal gas of mass $$m$$ in a state $$A$$ goes to another state $$B$$ via three different processes as shown in figur 17. A metal wire has a resistance of $$35 \Omega$$. If its length is increased to double by drawing it, then its new resista 18. A half ring of radius $$R$$ has a charge of $$\lambda$$ per unit length. The electric force on $$1 \mathrm{C}$$ charged 19. Positive charge $$Q$$ is distributed uniformly over a circular ring of radius $$R$$. A point particle having a mass $$(m 20. An infinite number of identical capacitors
each of capacitance 1 $$\mu$$F are connected as
shown in the figure. Then, th 21. In the circuit in the figure, if no current
flows through the galvanometer when the
key K is closed, the bridge is balan 22. In a series R-C circuit shown in figure, the
applied voltage is 10 V and the voltage across
capacitor is found to be 8V. 23. A system $$S$$ consists of two coils $$A$$ and $$B$$. The coil $$A$$ carries a steady current $$I$$. While the coil $$B$ 24. A long straight wire, carrying current $$I$$ is bent at its mid-point to form an angle of $$45^{\circ}$$. Induction of m 25. An element $$d l=d x \hat{\mathbf{i}}$$ (where, $$d x=1 \mathrm{~cm}$$ ) is placed at the origin and carries a large cur 26. The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field at any place is $$0.36 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~Wb} / \mathrm{m}^2 27. Consider the following figure, a uniform
magnetic field of 0.2 T is directed along the
positive X-axis. The magnetic flu 28. An ideal coil of $$10 \mathrm{~H}$$ is connected in series with a resistance of $$5 \Omega$$ and a battery of $$5 \mathr 29. In the circuit, shown the galvanometer $$G$$ of resistance $$60 \Omega$$ is shunted by a resistance $$r=0.02 \Omega$$. T 30. In a circuit $$L, C$$ and $$R$$ are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of frequency $$f$$. The curre 31. The graph between the energy log E of an
electron and its de-Broglie wavelength log $$\lambda$$ will be 32. The half-life of a radioactive substance is $$20 \mathrm{~min}$$. The approximate time interval $$\left(t_2-t_1\right)$$ 33.
In the figure, mass of a ball is $$\frac{9}{5}$$ times mass of the rod. Length of rod is $$1 \mathrm{~m}$$. The level o 34.
The diode used at a
constant potential drop
of 0.5 V at all currents
and maximum power
rating of 100 mW. What
resistanc 35. An unpolarised beam of intensity $$2 a^2$$ passes through a thin polaroid. Assuming zero absorption in the polaroid, the 36. A gas consisting of a rigid diatomic molecules
was initially under standard condition. Then,
gas was compressed adiabati 37. A diode detector is used to detect and
amplitude modulated wave of 60%
modulation by using a condenser of capacity
250 p 38. Red light of wavelength 5400 $$\mathop A\limits^o $$ from a
distant source falls on a slit 0.80 mm wide.
Calculate the d 39. A circular loop of radius 0.3 cm lies parallel
to a much bigger circular loop of radius 20 cm.
The centre of the small l 40. In the adjoining circuit diagram, the
readings of ammeter and voltmeter are 2 A
and 120 V, respectively. If the value of 41. Assertion A body is momentarily at rest at
the instant, if it reverse the direction.
Reason A body cannot have accelerat 42. Assertion The maximum height of projectile
is always 25% of the maximum range.
Reason For maximum range, projectile
shou 43. Assertion Angle of repose is equal to angle
of limiting friction.
Reason When a body is just at the point of
motion, the 44. Assertion Two particles moving in the same
direction do not lose all their energy in
completely inelastic collision.
Rea 45. Assertion The angular momentum of
system always remain constant.
Reason For a system, $$\tau_{\mathrm{ext}}=\frac{d L}{d 46. Assertion A pendulum is falling freely its
time period becomes zero.
Reason Freely falling body has the
acceleration equ 47. Assertion Smaller drop of water resist deformation forces better than the larger drops.
Reason Excess pressure inside dr 48. Assertion In isothermal process, whole of
the heat energy supplied to the body is
converted into internal energy.
Reason 49. Assertion Internal energy of an ideal gas
does not depend on volume of gas.
Reason Internal energy depends only on
tempe 50. Assertion To hear different beats difference
of the frequencies of two sources should be
less than 10.
Reason More the n 51. Assertion Mass of a body decreases slightly
when it is negatively charged.
Reason Charging is due to transfer of electro 52. Assertion A dielectric slab is inserted
between plates of an isolated charged
capacitor which remain same.
Reason Charge 53. Assertion Terminal voltage of a cell is greater
than emf of cell during charging of the cell.
Reason The emf of a cell i 54. Assertion A magnetic field interacts with a
moving charge and not with a stationary
charge.
Reason A moving charge produ 55. Assertion Bulb generally get fused when
they are switched on or off.
Reason When we switch on or off, a circuit
current 56. Assertion A convex mirror always make a
virtual image.
Reason The ray always diverge after
reflection from the convex mi 57. Assertion If a glass slab is placed in front of
one of the slits, then fringe with will
decrease.
Reason Glass slab will 58. Assertion If electrons in an atom were
stationary, then they would fall into the
nucleus.
Reason Electrostatic force of 59. Assertion Radioactive nuclei emits $$\beta^{-}$$-particles.
Reason Electrons exist inside the nucleus. 60. Assertion Thickness of depletion layer is
fixed in all semiconductor devices.
Reason No free charge carriers are availab
1
AIIMS 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+1
-0.33
Production of human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible because
A
the human chromosome can replicate in the bacterial cell
B
the mechanism of gene regulation is identical in humans and bacteria
C
bacterial cells can carry out RNA splicing reactions
D
the genetic code is universal
2
AIIMS 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+1
-0.33
Choose the correct statements with reference to organic evolution.
I. Flippers of whale and wings of bat exhibit analogy.
II. Wings of butterfly and wings of bird exhibit homology.
III. Organs with dissimilar structure are called analogous organs.
IV. Organs with similar structure and origin are called homologous organs.
A
I and IV
B
I and III
C
III and IV
D
II and IV
3
AIIMS 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+1
-0.33
Triticale is the first man-made cereal crop. Mention the type of hybridisation through which it was produced.
A
Intervarietal hybridisation
B
Interspecific hybridisation
C
Intergeneric hybridisation
D
Intravarietal hybridisation
4
AIIMS 2018
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+1
-0.33
Azolla is used as a biofertiliser because it
A
has association of mycorrhiza
B
multiplies at faster rate to produce massive biomass
C
has association of nitrogen-fixing Rhizobium
D
has association of nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria
Paper analysis
Total Questions
Biology
60
Chemistry
60
Physics
60
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2019
2018