AIIMS 2018 | AIIMS Year Wise Previous Years Questions

Biology

1. Biomagnification can be defined as 2. Leaf tendrils are found in 3. Diagram of large intestine is given below. Identify the parts A, B, C, D, E and F. 4. Select the incorrect statement(s) from the options given below with respect to dihybrid cross. I. Tightly linked genes o 5. Match the stages of meiosis in column I to their characteristic features in Column II and select the correct option usin 6. Read the following statements I. Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles. II. Ste 7. Characteristics of cancer are 8. Select the incorrect match. I. Sedimentary nutrient cycle-Nitrogen cycle II. Pioneer species - Lichens III. Secondary su 9. Apical dominance is caused by 10. Consider the following four measures (I-IV) that could be taken to successfully grow chickpea in an area where bacterial 11. Match the organisms given in Column I to their functions given in Column II and choose the correct option. .tg {border 12. A plant has a butterfly-shaped flower with one standard, two wing like and two keel petals. To which family, this plant 13. Identify the permanent tissues shown in the following figures 14. Find the correct statements from the following I. Gene therapy is a genetic engineering technique used to treat diseases 15. A mutant plant is unable to produce materials or precursors that form Casparian strip. This plant would be 16. Cell A has osmotic pressure of $$-$$20 bars and pressure potential of 5 bars, whereas cell B has osmotic pressure of $$- 17. If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for ampicillin resistance is transferred into E. coli cells and the host cells are spr 18. Adults of Wuchereria bancrofti attack 19. Which of the following pathways occurs through cell wall? 20. Which of the following plants are used to treat bone fractures? 21. $$\mathrm{C}_4$$ pathway is advantageous over $$\mathrm{C}_3$$ pathway in plants, because it 22. Production of human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible because 23. Choose the correct statements with reference to organic evolution. I. Flippers of whale and wings of bat exhibit analogy 24. Triticale is the first man-made cereal crop. Mention the type of hybridisation through which it was produced. 25. Azolla is used as a biofertiliser because it 26. Person 'A' cannot step out of his house. He has to spend his entire life in sterile isolation otherwise, he would quickl 27. The peppered moth (Biston betularia), the black-coloured form becomes dominant over the light-coloured form of moth in E 28. A normal woman whose father was colourblind, marries a normal man. What kinds of children can be expected and in what pr 29. From the graph of population growth, select the correct option having correct value of '$$r$$' and bar graph. 30. What is true about the isolated small tribal populations? 31. Codons of glycine are 32. Which one of the following organisms do not evolve oxygen during photosynthesis? 33. Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins? 34. Match Column I (Antibiotic) with Column II (Source) and choose the correct option from the codes given below. .tg {bor 35. Arrange in correct order according to the given figures. 36. cry II Ab and cry I Ab produce toxins that control 37. Match the following columns. .tg {border-collapse:collapse;border-spacing:0;} .tg td{border-color:black;border-style:s 38. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex? 39. Read the following statements I. Colostrum is recommended for the new borns because it is rich in antigens. II. Chikungu 40. A scion is grafted to a stock. The quality of fruits produced will be determined by the genotype of 41. Assertion Nitrogen-fixing bacteria of legume root nodules survive in oxygen depleted cells. Reason Leghaemoglobin comple 42. Assertion Cytochrome oxidase enzyme contains copper. Reason Cyanide combines with copper of cytochrome oxide and prevent 43. Assertion In females, parturition is the act of giving birth to a baby. Reason Signals for parturition originate from a 44. Assertion Meiotic division occurs in reproductive cells. Reason Synapsis occurs during zygotene of meiosis. 45. Assertion Peptide and polypeptide hormones directly pass across the lipid bilayer of plasma membrane. Reason Oxytocin ho 46. Assertion In apomixis, the plants of new genetic sequence are produced. Reason In apomixis, two organisms of same geneti 47. Assertion : The quiescent centre acts as a reservoir of relatively resistant cells, which constitute a permanent source 48. Assertion Two turns of Krebs’ cycle occur per glucose molecule used. Reason Each turn of Krebs’ cycle produces 3 NADH, 1 49. Assertion Alcoholics may show deficiency symptoms of Wernicke’s and Korsakoff’s syndromes. Reason Alcohol acts as depres 50. Assertion : BOD is an indicator of pollution in water. Reason : High BOD is observed in highly polluted water. 51. Assertion Pork should be properly cooked to avoid Taenia infection. Reason Pork of pig contains hexacanth and cysticercu 52. Assertion Magnesium is important in photosynthesis and carbohydrate metabolism. Reason $$\mathrm{Mg}^{2+}$$ is involved 53. Assertion Phenylketonuria is recessive hereditary disease caused by body’s failure to oxidise an amino acid phenylalanin 54. Assertion Caryopsis fruits differ from typical achenes with respect to the fusion of pericarp with the seed-coat (testa) 55. Assertion : The collenchyma is a thick-walled living tissue. Reason : The collenchyma is thickened due to deposition of 56. Assertion In mitosis, two identical cells are produced from a single cell and karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis. R 57. Assertion Non-cyclic photophosphorylation occurs in the stroma of chloroplasts. Reason There is discontinuous flow of el 58. Assertion Taenia solium and Dugesia belong to Platyhelminthes. Reason : Platyhelminthes are coelomates. 59. Assertion The non-allelic genes for red hair and prickles are usually inherited together. Reason The genes for red hair 60. Assertion Photomodulation of flower is phytochrome regulated process. Reason Active form of phytochrome (Pfr) directly i

Chemistry

1. In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes place between system and surroundings. Choose the correct option for 2. Which of the following represents Wurtz-Fittig reaction? 3. The work function of a metal is $$4.2 \mathrm{~eV}$$. If radiation of 2000 $$\mathop A\limits^o$$ fall on the metal then 4. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of 5. Food preservatives prevent spoilage of food due to microbial growth. The most commonly used preservatives are 6. Among the following statements, the correct statement about the half-life period for a first order reaction is 7. The electronic configuration of central metal atom/ion in $$\left[\mathrm{Co}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]^{3-}$$ is 8. A bromoalkane '$$X$$' reacts with magnesium in dry ether to form compound '$$Y$$'. The reaction of '$$Y$$' with methanol 9. The spin only magnetic moment of $$[\mathrm{MnBr}_4]^{2-}$$ is $$5.9 \mathrm{~BM}$$. The geometry of this complex ion is 10. At equilibrium, the concentration of $$\begin{gathered} \mathrm{N}_2=3.0 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{M} \\ \mathrm{O}_2=4.2 \ 11. Which of the following is an example of network solid? 12. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should have highest bon 13. Which of the following compound has same oxidation state of the central metal atom in the cationic and anionic part? 14. The rate constant for the first order decomposition of a certain reaction is described by the equation $$\ln k\left(\mat 15. In which of the following arrangements, the order is not strictly according to the property written against it? 16. For a $$\mathrm{Ag}-\mathrm{Zn}$$ button cell, net reaction is $$\begin{gathered} \mathrm{Zn}(s)+\mathrm{Ag}_2 \mathrm{O 17. Which of the following oxyacid does not contain $$\mathrm{P}-\mathrm{O}-\mathrm{P}$$ bond? 18. Niobium crystallises in body centred cubic structure. If density is $$8.55 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~cm}^{-3}$$, then the ato 19. The IUPAC name of the complex $$[\mathrm{Pt}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{Br}\left(\mathrm{NO}_2\right) \mathrm{C 20. When an excess and a very dilute aqueous solution of KI is added to very dilute aqueous solution of silver nitrate. The 21. $$\mathop {8N{H_3}}\limits_{(Excess)} + 3C{l_2}\buildrel {} \over \longrightarrow X$$ $$N{H_3} + \mathop {3C{l_2}}\lim 22. The ionic radii $$(\mathop A\limits^o)$$ of $$\mathrm{C}^{4-}$$ and $$\mathrm{O}^{2-}$$ respectively are 2.60 and 1.40. 23. Which of the following products will be obtained when copper metal is reacted with $$\mathrm{HNO}_3$$ ? 24. A gas ‘X’ is used in filling balloons for meteorological observations. It is also used in gas-cooled nuclear reactors. H 25. A solid has a structure in which W atoms are located at the corners of a cubic lattice. O atoms at the centre of edges a 26. Benzoic acid undergoes dimerisation in benzene solution. The van't Hoff factor $$(i)$$ is related to the degree of assoc 27. X and Y respectively are 28. At $$25^{\circ} \mathrm{C}$$, the molar conductance at infinite dilution for the strong electrolytes $$\mathrm{NaOH}, \m 29. In the above reaction sequence, $$X$$ is 30. The correct order of spin only magnetic moment (in BM) for $$\mathrm{Mn}^{2+}, \mathrm{Cr}^{2+}$$ and $$\mathrm{Ti}^{2+} 31. Which of the following compounds do not undergo aldol condensation? 32. A green yellow gas reacts with an alkali metal hydroxide to form a halate which can be used in fireworks and safety matc 33. The correct order of decreasing stability of the following carbocation is 34. Hydrolysis of sucrose with dilute aqueous sulphuric acid yields 35. Among the following complex ions, the one which shows geometrical isomerism will be 36. $$\Delta H$$ and $$\Delta E$$ for the reaction, $$\mathrm{Fe}_2 \mathrm{O}_3(s)+3 \mathrm{H}_2(g) \longrightarrow 2 \mat 37. The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is 38. Among the following rules, the one which is applied in the given reaction is $$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CHBrCH}_2 \mathrm{C 39. The solubility product of sparingly soluble salt $$A X_2$$ is $$3.2 \times 10^{-11}$$. Its solubility (in mol/L) is 40. The structure of $$\mathrm{IF}_7,$$ is 41. Assertion (A) Micelles are formed by surfactant molecules above the critical micellar concentration (CMC). Reason (R) Th 42. Assertion (A) : The pH of acid rain is less than 5.6. Reason (R) : Carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere dissolves in 43. Assertion (A) Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative as we go down a group. Reason (R) Size of the atom increases 44. Assertion (A) Among the two $$\mathrm{O}-\mathrm{H}$$ bonds in $$\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}$$ molecule, the energy required 45. Assertion (A) : Nitration of benzene with nitric acid requires the use of concentrated sulphuric acid. Reason (R) : The 46. Assertion (A) Beryllium carbonate is kept in the atmosphere of carbon dioxide. Reason (R) Beryllium carbonate is unstabl 47. Assertion (A) Separation of Zr and Hf is difficult. Reason (R) Zr and Hf lie in the same group of the periodic table. 48. Assertion (A) Toxic metal ions are removed by the chelating ligands. Reason (R) Chelate complexes tend to be more stable 49. Assertion (A) IUPAC name of the compound Reason (R) In IUPAC nomenclature, ether is regarded as hydrocarbon derivative 50. Assertion (A) The reaction $$\begin{aligned} 2 \mathrm{NO}+\mathrm{O}_2 & \longrightarrow 2 \mathrm{NO}_2 \\ \text { and 51. Assertion (A) The boiling points of alkyl halides decrease in the order $$R \mathrm{I}>R \mathrm{Br}>\mathrm{RCl}>\mathr 52. Assertion (A) $$\mathrm{N}_2$$ is less reactive than $$\mathrm{P}_4$$. Reason (R) Nitrogen has more electron gain enthal 53. Assertion (A) The molecular mass of the polymers cannot be calculated using the boiling point or freezing point method. 54. Assertion (A) $$\mathrm{NaCl}$$ reacts with concentrated $$\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4$$ to give colourless fumes with pu 55. Assertion (A) $$K_p$$ can be equal to or less than or even greater than the value of $$K_C$$. Reason (R) $$K_p=K_C(R T)^ 56. Assertion (A) $$\mathrm{CH}_4$$ does not react with $$\mathrm{Cl}_2$$ in dark. Reason (R) Chlorination of $$\mathrm{CH}_ 57. Assertion (A) $$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{OH}$$ and $$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{OH}$$ can be distinguished by halo 58. Assertion (A) For a Daniell cell $$\mathrm{Zn} / \mathrm{Zn}^{2+} \| \mathrm{Cu}^{2+} \mid \mathrm{Cu}$$ with $$E_{\text 59. Assertion (A) Most of the synthetic polymers are not biodegradable. Reason (R) Polymerisation process induces toxic poly 60. Assertion (A) Graphite is an example of tetragonal crystal system. Reason (R) For a tetragonal system, $$a=b \neq c$$ an

Physics

1. A wooden wedge of mass $$M$$ and inclination angle $$(\alpha)$$ rest on a smooth floor. A block of mass $m$ is kept on w 2. A piece of ice slides down a rough inclined plane at $$45^{\circ}$$ inclination in twice the time that it takes to slide 3. A body of mass 5 kg is suspended by a spring balance on an inclined plane as shown in figure. So, force applied on spri 4. In the figure, blocks A and B of masses 2m and m are connected with a string and system is hanged vertically with the h 5. If the formula, $$X=3 Y Z^2, X$$ and $$Z$$ have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic induction. The dimensions of $$Y$ 6. The figure shows a mass $$m$$ on a frictionless surface. It is connected to rigid wall by the mean of a massless spring 7. Body of mass M is much heavier than the other body of mass m. The heavier body with speed v collides with the lighter bo 8. A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its centre. An insect is at rest at a 9. Three bodies having masses $$5 \mathrm{~kg}, 4 \mathrm{~kg}$$ and $$2 \mathrm{~kg}$$ is moving at the speed of $$5 \math 10. Two satellites $$A$$ and $$B$$ revolve round the same planet in coplanar circular orbits lying in the same plane. Their 11. A planet is revolving around the sun in a circular orbit with a radius $$r$$. The time period is $$T$$. If the force bet 12. The weight of a body on the surface of the earth is 63 N. What is the gravitational force on it due to the earth at a he 13. A block of rectangular size of mass $$m$$ and area of cross-section $$A$$, floats in a liquid of density $$\rho$$. If we 14. A steel rod 100 cm long is damped at into middle. The fundamental frequency of longitudinal vibrations of the rod are gi 15. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end. Find the number of possible natural oscillations of air column in the pip 16. An ideal gas of mass $$m$$ in a state $$A$$ goes to another state $$B$$ via three different processes as shown in figur 17. A metal wire has a resistance of $$35 \Omega$$. If its length is increased to double by drawing it, then its new resista 18. A half ring of radius $$R$$ has a charge of $$\lambda$$ per unit length. The electric force on $$1 \mathrm{C}$$ charged 19. Positive charge $$Q$$ is distributed uniformly over a circular ring of radius $$R$$. A point particle having a mass $$(m 20. An infinite number of identical capacitors each of capacitance 1 $$\mu$$F are connected as shown in the figure. Then, th 21. In the circuit in the figure, if no current flows through the galvanometer when the key K is closed, the bridge is balan 22. In a series R-C circuit shown in figure, the applied voltage is 10 V and the voltage across capacitor is found to be 8V. 23. A system $$S$$ consists of two coils $$A$$ and $$B$$. The coil $$A$$ carries a steady current $$I$$. While the coil $$B$ 24. A long straight wire, carrying current $$I$$ is bent at its mid-point to form an angle of $$45^{\circ}$$. Induction of m 25. An element $$d l=d x \hat{\mathbf{i}}$$ (where, $$d x=1 \mathrm{~cm}$$ ) is placed at the origin and carries a large cur 26. The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field at any place is $$0.36 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~Wb} / \mathrm{m}^2 27. Consider the following figure, a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T is directed along the positive X-axis. The magnetic flu 28. An ideal coil of $$10 \mathrm{~H}$$ is connected in series with a resistance of $$5 \Omega$$ and a battery of $$5 \mathr 29. In the circuit, shown the galvanometer $$G$$ of resistance $$60 \Omega$$ is shunted by a resistance $$r=0.02 \Omega$$. T 30. In a circuit $$L, C$$ and $$R$$ are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of frequency $$f$$. The curre 31. The graph between the energy log E of an electron and its de-Broglie wavelength log $$\lambda$$ will be 32. The half-life of a radioactive substance is $$20 \mathrm{~min}$$. The approximate time interval $$\left(t_2-t_1\right)$$ 33. In the figure, mass of a ball is $$\frac{9}{5}$$ times mass of the rod. Length of rod is $$1 \mathrm{~m}$$. The level o 34. The diode used at a constant potential drop of 0.5 V at all currents and maximum power rating of 100 mW. What resistanc 35. An unpolarised beam of intensity $$2 a^2$$ passes through a thin polaroid. Assuming zero absorption in the polaroid, the 36. A gas consisting of a rigid diatomic molecules was initially under standard condition. Then, gas was compressed adiabati 37. A diode detector is used to detect and amplitude modulated wave of 60% modulation by using a condenser of capacity 250 p 38. Red light of wavelength 5400 $$\mathop A\limits^o $$ from a distant source falls on a slit 0.80 mm wide. Calculate the d 39. A circular loop of radius 0.3 cm lies parallel to a much bigger circular loop of radius 20 cm. The centre of the small l 40. In the adjoining circuit diagram, the readings of ammeter and voltmeter are 2 A and 120 V, respectively. If the value of 41. Assertion A body is momentarily at rest at the instant, if it reverse the direction. Reason A body cannot have accelerat 42. Assertion The maximum height of projectile is always 25% of the maximum range. Reason For maximum range, projectile shou 43. Assertion Angle of repose is equal to angle of limiting friction. Reason When a body is just at the point of motion, the 44. Assertion Two particles moving in the same direction do not lose all their energy in completely inelastic collision. Rea 45. Assertion The angular momentum of system always remain constant. Reason For a system, $$\tau_{\mathrm{ext}}=\frac{d L}{d 46. Assertion A pendulum is falling freely its time period becomes zero. Reason Freely falling body has the acceleration equ 47. Assertion Smaller drop of water resist deformation forces better than the larger drops. Reason Excess pressure inside dr 48. Assertion In isothermal process, whole of the heat energy supplied to the body is converted into internal energy. Reason 49. Assertion Internal energy of an ideal gas does not depend on volume of gas. Reason Internal energy depends only on tempe 50. Assertion To hear different beats difference of the frequencies of two sources should be less than 10. Reason More the n 51. Assertion Mass of a body decreases slightly when it is negatively charged. Reason Charging is due to transfer of electro 52. Assertion A dielectric slab is inserted between plates of an isolated charged capacitor which remain same. Reason Charge 53. Assertion Terminal voltage of a cell is greater than emf of cell during charging of the cell. Reason The emf of a cell i 54. Assertion A magnetic field interacts with a moving charge and not with a stationary charge. Reason A moving charge produ 55. Assertion Bulb generally get fused when they are switched on or off. Reason When we switch on or off, a circuit current 56. Assertion A convex mirror always make a virtual image. Reason The ray always diverge after reflection from the convex mi 57. Assertion If a glass slab is placed in front of one of the slits, then fringe with will decrease. Reason Glass slab will 58. Assertion If electrons in an atom were stationary, then they would fall into the nucleus. Reason Electrostatic force of 59. Assertion Radioactive nuclei emits $$\beta^{-}$$-particles. Reason Electrons exist inside the nucleus. 60. Assertion Thickness of depletion layer is fixed in all semiconductor devices. Reason No free charge carriers are availab

AIIMS 2018

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-0.33

Three bodies having masses $$5 \mathrm{~kg}, 4 \mathrm{~kg}$$ and $$2 \mathrm{~kg}$$ is moving at the speed of $$5 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}, 4 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$$ and $$2 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$$ respectively along $$X$$-axis. The magnitude of velocity of centre of mass is

$$1.0 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$$

$$4 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$$

$$0.9 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$$

$$1.3 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$$

AIIMS 2018

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-0.33

Two satellites $$A$$ and $$B$$ revolve round the same planet in coplanar circular orbits lying in the same plane. Their periods of revolutions are $$1 \mathrm{~h}$$ and $$8 \mathrm{~h}$$, respectively. The radius of the orbit of $$A$$ is $$10^4 \mathrm{~km}$$. The speed of $$B$$ is relative to $$A$$. When they are closed in $$\mathrm{km} / \mathrm{h}$$ is

$$3 \pi \times 10^4$$

zero

$$2 \pi \times 10^4$$

$$\pi \times 10^4$$

AIIMS 2018

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-0.33

A planet is revolving around the sun in a circular orbit with a radius $$r$$. The time period is $$T$$. If the force between the planet and star is proportional to $$r^{-3 / 2}$$, then the square of time period is proportional to

$$r^{3 / 2}$$

$$r^2$$

$$r$$

$$r^{5 / 2}$$

AIIMS 2018

MCQ (Single Correct Answer)

-0.33

The weight of a body on the surface of the earth is 63 N. What is the gravitational force on it due to the earth at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?

35 N

28 N

18 N

40 N

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