AIIMS 2018
Paper was held on Sun, May 27, 2018 9:30 AM
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Biology

1

Biomagnification can be defined as

2

Leaf tendrils are found in

3

Diagram of large intestine is given below. Identify the parts A, B, C, D, E and F.

AIIMS 2018 Biology - Digestion and Absorption Question 1 English

4

Select the incorrect statement(s) from the options given below with respect to dihybrid cross.

I. Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations.

II. Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.

III. Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations.

5

Match the stages of meiosis in column I to their characteristic features in Column II and select the correct option using the codes given below.

Column I Column II
A. Diakinesis 1. Crossing over takes place
B. Pachytene 2. Terminalisation of chiasmata
C. Zygotene 3. Chromosomes align at equatorial place
D. Metaphase 4. Pairing of homologous chromosomes

6

Read the following statements

I. Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.

II. Stellar's sea cow and passenger pigeon got extinct due to overexploitation by man.

III. Lantana and Eichhornia are invasive weed in India.

IV. The historic convention on biological diversity was held in 1992.

Choose the option containing correct statements.

7

Characteristics of cancer are

8

Select the incorrect match.

I. Sedimentary nutrient cycle-Nitrogen cycle

II. Pioneer species - Lichens

III. Secondary succession - Burned forests

IV. Pyramid of biomass in sea - Upright

9

Apical dominance is caused by

10

Consider the following four measures (I-IV) that could be taken to successfully grow chickpea in an area where bacterial blight is common.

I. Spray with Bordeaux mixture.

II. Control of the insect vector of the disease pathogen.

III. Use of disease-free seeds only.

IV. Use of varieties resistant to the disease.

Which of the above measures can control the diseases?

11

Match the organisms given in Column I to their functions given in Column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
A. Thiobacillus 1. Free-living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria
B. Nitrosomonas 2. Denitrification
C. Nostoc 3. Free-living aerobic nitrogen-fixing bacteria
D. Azotobactor 4. $$\mathrm{NH_3}$$ to Nitrite

12

A plant has a butterfly-shaped flower with one standard, two wing like and two keel petals. To which family, this plant belongs?

13

Identify the permanent tissues shown in the following figures

AIIMS 2018 Biology - Anatomy of Flowering Plants Question 1 English

14

Find the correct statements from the following

I. Gene therapy is a genetic engineering technique used to treat diseases at molecular level.

II. Calcitonin is medically useful recombinant product in the treatment of infertility.

III. Bt toxin is a biodegradable insecticide obtained from Bacillus thuringiensis.

15

A mutant plant is unable to produce materials or precursors that form Casparian strip. This plant would be

16

Cell A has osmotic pressure of $$-$$20 bars and pressure potential of 5 bars, whereas cell B has osmotic pressure of $$-$$18 bars and pressure potential of 2 bars.

The direction of flow of water will be

17

If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for ampicillin resistance is transferred into E. coli cells and the host cells are spread on agar plates containing ampicillin, then

18

Adults of Wuchereria bancrofti attack

19

Which of the following pathways occurs through cell wall?

20

Which of the following plants are used to treat bone fractures?

21

$$\mathrm{C}_4$$ pathway is advantageous over $$\mathrm{C}_3$$ pathway in plants, because it

22

Production of human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible because

23

Choose the correct statements with reference to organic evolution.

I. Flippers of whale and wings of bat exhibit analogy.

II. Wings of butterfly and wings of bird exhibit homology.

III. Organs with dissimilar structure are called analogous organs.

IV. Organs with similar structure and origin are called homologous organs.

24

Triticale is the first man-made cereal crop. Mention the type of hybridisation through which it was produced.

25

Azolla is used as a biofertiliser because it

26

Person 'A' cannot step out of his house. He has to spend his entire life in sterile isolation otherwise, he would quickly contract a fatal infection. This person has almost no effective immune system. This disease is also called as baby in a bubble syndrome. Identify the disease, this person 'A' is suffering from

27

The peppered moth (Biston betularia), the black-coloured form becomes dominant over the light-coloured form of moth in England during industrial revolution. This is an example of

28

A normal woman whose father was colourblind, marries a normal man. What kinds of children can be expected and in what proportion?

29

From the graph of population growth, select the correct option having correct value of '$$r$$' and bar graph.

AIIMS 2018 Biology - Organisms and Populations Question 1 English

30

What is true about the isolated small tribal populations?

31

Codons of glycine are

32

Which one of the following organisms do not evolve oxygen during photosynthesis?

33

Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?

34

Match Column I (Antibiotic) with Column II (Source) and choose the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II
A. Fumagillin 1. Gliocladium virens
B. Bacitracin 2. Streptomyces griseus
C. Streptomycin 3. Bacillus polymyxa
D. Viridin 4. Aspergillus fumigatus
E. Polymixin 5. Bacillus licheniformis

35

Arrange in correct order according to the given figures.

AIIMS 2018 Biology - Morphology of Flowering Plants Question 3 English

36

cry II Ab and cry I Ab produce toxins that control

37

Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
A. Hinge 1. Atlas and axis
B. Saddle 2. Frontal and parietal
C. Pivot 3. Carpal and metacarpal of humans
D. Ball and socket 4. Knee
5. Humerus and pectoral girdle

38

Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex?

39

Read the following statements

I. Colostrum is recommended for the new borns because it is rich in antigens.

II. Chikungunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium.

III. Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free plants.

IV. Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grapes.

How many of the statement(s) is/are correct?

40

A scion is grafted to a stock. The quality of fruits produced will be determined by the genotype of

41

Assertion Nitrogen-fixing bacteria of legume root nodules survive in oxygen depleted cells.

Reason Leghaemoglobin completely removes oxygen from nodule cells.

42

Assertion Cytochrome oxidase enzyme contains copper.

Reason Cyanide combines with copper of cytochrome oxide and prevents oxygen to combine with it.

43

Assertion In females, parturition is the act of giving birth to a baby.

Reason Signals for parturition originate from a fully developed foetus.

44

Assertion Meiotic division occurs in reproductive cells.

Reason Synapsis occurs during zygotene of meiosis.

45

Assertion Peptide and polypeptide hormones directly pass across the lipid bilayer of plasma membrane.

Reason Oxytocin hormone can pass across the plasma membrane.

46

Assertion In apomixis, the plants of new genetic sequence are produced.

Reason In apomixis, two organisms of same genetic sequence meet.

47

Assertion : The quiescent centre acts as a reservoir of relatively resistant cells, which constitute a permanent source of active initials.

Reason : The cells of the inactive region of quiescent centre become active, when the previous active initials get damaged.

48

Assertion Two turns of Krebs’ cycle occur per glucose molecule used.

Reason Each turn of Krebs’ cycle produces 3 NADH, 1FADH$$_2$$ and 1 ATP molecule.

49

Assertion Alcoholics may show deficiency symptoms of Wernicke’s and Korsakoff’s syndromes.

Reason Alcohol acts as depressant.

50

Assertion : BOD is an indicator of pollution in water.

Reason : High BOD is observed in highly polluted water.

51

Assertion Pork should be properly cooked to avoid Taenia infection.

Reason Pork of pig contains hexacanth and cysticercus larvae.

52

Assertion Magnesium is important in photosynthesis and carbohydrate metabolism.

Reason $$\mathrm{Mg}^{2+}$$ is involved in the synthesis of nucleic acids.

53

Assertion Phenylketonuria is recessive hereditary disease caused by body’s failure to oxidise an amino acid phenylalanine to tyrosine, because of defective enzyme.

Reason It is characterised by in the presence of phenylalanine acid in urine.

54

Assertion Caryopsis fruits differ from typical achenes with respect to the fusion of pericarp with the seed-coat (testa).

Reason Caryopsis fruits commonly occur in the members of family–Poaceae.

55

Assertion : The collenchyma is a thick-walled living tissue.

Reason : The collenchyma is thickened due to deposition of pectin.

56

Assertion In mitosis, two identical cells are produced from a single cell and karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis.

Reason Cytokinesis is of two types, i.e. by cell-furrow method and cell-plate method.

57

Assertion Non-cyclic photophosphorylation occurs in the stroma of chloroplasts.

Reason There is discontinuous flow of electrons in this process.

58

Assertion Taenia solium and Dugesia belong to Platyhelminthes.

Reason : Platyhelminthes are coelomates.

59

Assertion The non-allelic genes for red hair and prickles are usually inherited together.

Reason The genes for red hair and prickles are located on the same chromosome in close association.

60

Assertion Photomodulation of flower is phytochrome regulated process.

Reason Active form of phytochrome (Pfr) directly induces floral induction in shoot buds.

Chemistry

1

In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes place between system and surroundings. Choose the correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the following

2

Which of the following represents Wurtz-Fittig reaction?

3

The work function of a metal is $$4.2 \mathrm{~eV}$$. If radiation of 2000 $$\mathop A\limits^o$$ fall on the metal then the kinetic energy of the fastest photoelectron is

4

The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of

5

Food preservatives prevent spoilage of food due to microbial growth. The most commonly used preservatives are

6

Among the following statements, the correct statement about the half-life period for a first order reaction is

7

The electronic configuration of central metal atom/ion in $$\left[\mathrm{Co}(\mathrm{CN})_6\right]^{3-}$$ is

8

A bromoalkane '$$X$$' reacts with magnesium in dry ether to form compound '$$Y$$'. The reaction of '$$Y$$' with methanol followed by hydrolysis yield an alcohol having molecular formula, $$\mathrm{C}_4 \mathrm{H}_{10} \mathrm{O}$$. The compound '$$X$$' is

9

The spin only magnetic moment of $$[\mathrm{MnBr}_4]^{2-}$$ is $$5.9 \mathrm{~BM}$$. The geometry of this complex ion is

10

At equilibrium, the concentration of

$$\begin{gathered} \mathrm{N}_2=3.0 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{M} \\ \mathrm{O}_2=4.2 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{M} \\ \text{and} \quad \mathrm{NO}=2.8 \times 10^{-3} \mathrm{M} \end{gathered}$$

in a sealed vessel at $$800 \mathrm{~K}$$ and $$1 \mathrm{~atm}$$ pressure. What will be $$K_p$$ for the given reaction?

$$\mathrm{N}_2(g)+\mathrm{O}_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2 \mathrm{NO}(g)$$

11

Which of the following is an example of network solid?

12

Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should have highest bond dissociation enthalpy?

13

Which of the following compound has same oxidation state of the central metal atom in the cationic and anionic part?

14

The rate constant for the first order decomposition of a certain reaction is described by the equation $$\ln k\left(\mathrm{~s}^{-1}\right)=14.34-\frac{1.25 \times 10^4 \mathrm{~K}}{T}$$. The energy of activation for this reaction is

15

In which of the following arrangements, the order is not strictly according to the property written against it?

16

For a $$\mathrm{Ag}-\mathrm{Zn}$$ button cell, net reaction is

$$\begin{gathered} \mathrm{Zn}(s)+\mathrm{Ag}_2 \mathrm{O}(s) \longrightarrow \mathrm{ZnO}(s)+2 \mathrm{Ag}(s) \\ \Delta G_f^{\circ}\left(\mathrm{Ag}_2 \mathrm{O}\right)=-11.21 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1} \\ \Delta G_f^{\circ}(\mathrm{ZnO})=-318.3 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1} \end{gathered}$$

Then, $$E^{\circ}$$ cell of the button cell is

17

Which of the following oxyacid does not contain $$\mathrm{P}-\mathrm{O}-\mathrm{P}$$ bond?

18

Niobium crystallises in body centred cubic structure. If density is $$8.55 \mathrm{~g} \mathrm{~cm}^{-3}$$, then the atomic radius of niobium is (atomic mass of niobium $$=93 u$$ )

19

The IUPAC name of the complex $$[\mathrm{Pt}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_3 \mathrm{Br}\left(\mathrm{NO}_2\right) \mathrm{Cl}] \mathrm{Cl}$$ is

20

When an excess and a very dilute aqueous solution of KI is added to very dilute aqueous solution of silver nitrate. The colloidal particles of silver iodide which are associated with the Helmholtz double layer in the form of

21

$$\mathop {8N{H_3}}\limits_{(Excess)} + 3C{l_2}\buildrel {} \over \longrightarrow X$$

$$N{H_3} + \mathop {3C{l_2}}\limits_{(Excess)} \buildrel {} \over \longrightarrow Y$$

What is X and Y in the above reaction?

22

The ionic radii $$(\mathop A\limits^o)$$ of $$\mathrm{C}^{4-}$$ and $$\mathrm{O}^{2-}$$ respectively are 2.60 and 1.40. The ionic radius of the isoelectronic ion $$\mathrm{N}^{3-}$$ would be

23

Which of the following products will be obtained when copper metal is reacted with $$\mathrm{HNO}_3$$ ?

24

A gas ‘X’ is used in filling balloons for meteorological observations. It is also used in gas-cooled nuclear reactors. Here, the gas X is

25

A solid has a structure in which W atoms are located at the corners of a cubic lattice. O atoms at the centre of edges and Na atom at centre of the cube. The formula for the compound is

26

Benzoic acid undergoes dimerisation in benzene solution. The van't Hoff factor $$(i)$$ is related to the degree of association '$$x$$' of the acid as

27

AIIMS 2018 Chemistry - Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Question 3 English

X and Y respectively are

28

At $$25^{\circ} \mathrm{C}$$, the molar conductance at infinite dilution for the strong electrolytes $$\mathrm{NaOH}, \mathrm{NaCl}$$ and $$\mathrm{BaCl}_2$$ are $$248 \times 10^{-4}, 126 \times 10^{-4}$$ and $$280 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~Sm}^2 \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}$$ respectively. $$\lambda_{\mathrm{m}}^{\circ} \mathrm{Ba}(\mathrm{OH})_2$$ in $$\mathrm{Sm}^2 \mathrm{~mol}^{-1}$$ is

29

AIIMS 2018 Chemistry - Polymers Question 3 English

In the above reaction sequence, $$X$$ is

30

The correct order of spin only magnetic moment (in BM) for $$\mathrm{Mn}^{2+}, \mathrm{Cr}^{2+}$$ and $$\mathrm{Ti}^{2+}$$ ions is

31

Which of the following compounds do not undergo aldol condensation?

32

A green yellow gas reacts with an alkali metal hydroxide to form a halate which can be used in fireworks and safety matches. The gas and halate are, respectively

33

The correct order of decreasing stability of the following carbocation is

AIIMS 2018 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 2 English

34

Hydrolysis of sucrose with dilute aqueous sulphuric acid yields

35

Among the following complex ions, the one which shows geometrical isomerism will be

36

$$\Delta H$$ and $$\Delta E$$ for the reaction,

$$\mathrm{Fe}_2 \mathrm{O}_3(s)+3 \mathrm{H}_2(g) \longrightarrow 2 \mathrm{Fe}(s)+\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l)$$

at constant temperature are related as

37

The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is

AIIMS 2018 Chemistry - Some Basic Concepts of Organic Chemistry Question 1 English

38

Among the following rules, the one which is applied in the given reaction is

$$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CHBrCH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_3 \xrightarrow{\text { Alc. } \mathrm{KOH}}$$

I. $$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}=\mathrm{CHCH}_3$$ (major product)

II. $$\mathrm{CH}_2=\mathrm{CHCH}_2 \mathrm{CH}_3$$ (minor product)

39

The solubility product of sparingly soluble salt $$A X_2$$ is $$3.2 \times 10^{-11}$$. Its solubility (in mol/L) is

40

The structure of $$\mathrm{IF}_7,$$ is

41

Assertion (A) Micelles are formed by surfactant molecules above the critical micellar concentration (CMC).

Reason (R) The conductivity of a solution having surfactant molecules decreases sharply at the CMC.

42

Assertion (A) : The pH of acid rain is less than 5.6.

Reason (R) : Carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere dissolves in rain water and becomes carbonic acid.

43

Assertion (A) Electron gain enthalpy becomes less negative as we go down a group.

Reason (R) Size of the atom increases on going down the group and the added electron would be farther away from the nucleus.

44

Assertion (A) Among the two $$\mathrm{O}-\mathrm{H}$$ bonds in $$\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}$$ molecule, the energy required to break the first $$\mathrm{O}-\mathrm{H}$$ bond and the other $$\mathrm{O}-\mathrm{H}$$ bond is same.

Reason (R) This is because the electronic environment around oxygen is the same even after breakage of one $$\mathrm{O}-\mathrm{H}$$ bond.

45

Assertion (A) : Nitration of benzene with nitric acid requires the use of concentrated sulphuric acid.

Reason (R) : The mixture of concentrated sulphuric acid and concentrated nitric acid produces the electrophile, NO$$_2^+$$.

46

Assertion (A) Beryllium carbonate is kept in the atmosphere of carbon dioxide.

Reason (R) Beryllium carbonate is unstable and decomposes to give beryllium oxide and carbon dioxide.

47

Assertion (A) Separation of Zr and Hf is difficult.

Reason (R) Zr and Hf lie in the same group of the periodic table.

48

Assertion (A) Toxic metal ions are removed by the chelating ligands.

Reason (R) Chelate complexes tend to be more stable.

49

Assertion (A) IUPAC name of the compound

AIIMS 2018 Chemistry - Alcohol, Phenols and Ethers Question 1 English

Reason (R) In IUPAC nomenclature, ether is regarded as hydrocarbon derivative in which a hydrogen atom is replaced by-OR or- $$\mathrm{O} A r$$ group [where, $$R=$$ alkyl group and $$A r=\operatorname{aryl}$$ group].

50

Assertion (A) The reaction

$$\begin{aligned} 2 \mathrm{NO}+\mathrm{O}_2 & \longrightarrow 2 \mathrm{NO}_2 \\ \text { and } \quad 2 \mathrm{CO}+\mathrm{O}_2 & \longrightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_2 \end{aligned}$$

proceeds at the same rate because they are similar.

Reason (R) Both the reactions have same activation energy.

51

Assertion (A) The boiling points of alkyl halides decrease in the order $$R \mathrm{I}>R \mathrm{Br}>\mathrm{RCl}>\mathrm{RF}$$.

Reason (R) The boiling points of alkyl chlorides, bromides and iodides are considerably higher than that of the hydrocarbon of comparable molecular mass.

52

Assertion (A) $$\mathrm{N}_2$$ is less reactive than $$\mathrm{P}_4$$.

Reason (R) Nitrogen has more electron gain enthalpy than phosphorus.

53

Assertion (A) The molecular mass of the polymers cannot be calculated using the boiling point or freezing point method.

Reason (R) The freezing point method is used for determining the molecular mass of small molecules.

54

Assertion (A) $$\mathrm{NaCl}$$ reacts with concentrated $$\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{SO}_4$$ to give colourless fumes with pungent smell. But on adding $$\mathrm{MnO}_2$$ the fumes become greenish yellow.

Reason (R) $$\mathrm{MnO}_2$$ oxidises $$\mathrm{HCl}$$ to chlorine gas which is greenish yellow.

55

Assertion (A) $$K_p$$ can be equal to or less than or even greater than the value of $$K_C$$.

Reason (R) $$K_p=K_C(R T)^{\Delta n}$$

Relation between $$K_p$$ and $$K_C$$ depends on the change in the number of moles of gaseous reactants and products.

56

Assertion (A) $$\mathrm{CH}_4$$ does not react with $$\mathrm{Cl}_2$$ in dark.

Reason (R) Chlorination of $$\mathrm{CH}_4$$ takes place in sunlight.

57

Assertion (A) $$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{OH}$$ and $$\mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{OH}$$ can be distinguished by haloform test.

Reason (R) Haloform test is given by $$2^{\circ}$$ alcohol.

58

Assertion (A) For a Daniell cell $$\mathrm{Zn} / \mathrm{Zn}^{2+} \| \mathrm{Cu}^{2+} \mid \mathrm{Cu}$$ with $$E_{\text {cell }}=1.1 \mathrm{~V}$$, the application of opposite potential greater than $$1.1 \mathrm{~V}$$ results into the flow of electrons from cathode to anode.

Reason (R) Zn is deposited at zinc electrode and $$\mathrm{Cu}$$ is dissolved at copper electrode.

59

Assertion (A) Most of the synthetic polymers are not biodegradable.

Reason (R) Polymerisation process induces toxic polymerisation.

60

Assertion (A) Graphite is an example of tetragonal crystal system.

Reason (R) For a tetragonal system, $$a=b \neq c$$ and $$\alpha=\beta=90^{\circ}, \gamma=120^{\circ}$$.

Physics

1

A wooden wedge of mass $$M$$ and inclination angle $$(\alpha)$$ rest on a smooth floor. A block of mass $m$ is kept on wedge. A force $$F$$ is applied on the wedge as shown in the figure such that block remains stationary with respect to wedge. So, magnitude of force $$F$$ is

AIIMS 2018 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 6 English

2

A piece of ice slides down a rough inclined plane at $$45^{\circ}$$ inclination in twice the time that it takes to slide down an identical but frictionless inclined plane. What is the coefficient of friction between ice and incline?

3

A body of mass 5 kg is suspended by a spring balance on an inclined plane as shown in figure.

AIIMS 2018 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 7 English

So, force applied on spring balance is

4

AIIMS 2018 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 2 English

In the figure, blocks A and B of masses 2m and m are connected with a string and system is hanged vertically with the help of a spring. Spring has negligible mass. Find out magnitude of acceleration of masses 2m and m just after the instant when the string is cut

5

If the formula, $$X=3 Y Z^2, X$$ and $$Z$$ have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic induction. The dimensions of $$Y$$ in MKSQ system are

6

The figure shows a mass $$m$$ on a frictionless surface. It is connected to rigid wall by the mean of a massless spring of its constant $$k$$. Initially, the spring is at its natural position. If a force of constant magnitude starts acting on the block towards right, then the speed of the block when the deformation in spring is $$x$$, will be

AIIMS 2018 Physics - Work, Energy and Power Question 2 English

7

Body of mass M is much heavier than the other body of mass m. The heavier body with speed v collides with the lighter body which was at rest initially elastically. The speed of lighter body after collision is

8

A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its centre. An insect is at rest at a point near the rim of disc. The insect now moves along a diameter of the disc to reach its other end. During the journey of the insect, the angular speed of the disc

9

Three bodies having masses $$5 \mathrm{~kg}, 4 \mathrm{~kg}$$ and $$2 \mathrm{~kg}$$ is moving at the speed of $$5 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}, 4 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$$ and $$2 \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}$$ respectively along $$X$$-axis. The magnitude of velocity of centre of mass is

10

Two satellites $$A$$ and $$B$$ revolve round the same planet in coplanar circular orbits lying in the same plane. Their periods of revolutions are $$1 \mathrm{~h}$$ and $$8 \mathrm{~h}$$, respectively. The radius of the orbit of $$A$$ is $$10^4 \mathrm{~km}$$. The speed of $$B$$ is relative to $$A$$. When they are closed in $$\mathrm{km} / \mathrm{h}$$ is

11

A planet is revolving around the sun in a circular orbit with a radius $$r$$. The time period is $$T$$. If the force between the planet and star is proportional to $$r^{-3 / 2}$$, then the square of time period is proportional to

12

The weight of a body on the surface of the earth is 63 N. What is the gravitational force on it due to the earth at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?

13

A block of rectangular size of mass $$m$$ and area of cross-section $$A$$, floats in a liquid of density $$\rho$$. If we give a small vertical displacement from equilibrium, it undergoes SHM with time period $$T$$, then

14

A steel rod 100 cm long is damped at into middle. The fundamental frequency of longitudinal vibrations of the rod are given to be 2.53 kHz. What is the speed of sound in sound is steel?

15

A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end. Find the number of possible natural oscillations of air column in the pipe whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz. The velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s.

16

AIIMS 2018 Physics - Heat and Thermodynamics Question 3 English

An ideal gas of mass $$m$$ in a state $$A$$ goes to another state $$B$$ via three different processes as shown in figure. If $$Q_1, Q_2$$ and $$Q_3$$ denote the heat absorbed by the gas along the three paths, then

17

A metal wire has a resistance of $$35 \Omega$$. If its length is increased to double by drawing it, then its new resistance will be

18

A half ring of radius $$R$$ has a charge of $$\lambda$$ per unit length. The electric force on $$1 \mathrm{C}$$ charged placed at the centre is

19

Positive charge $$Q$$ is distributed uniformly over a circular ring of radius $$R$$. A point particle having a mass $$(m)$$ and a negative charge $$-q$$ is placed on its axis at a distance $$x$$ from the centre. Assuming $$x < R$$, find the time period of oscillation of the particle, if it is released from there [neglect gravity].

20

An infinite number of identical capacitors each of capacitance 1 $$\mu$$F are connected as shown in the figure. Then, the equivalent capacitance between A and B is

AIIMS 2018 Physics - Capacitor Question 2 English

21

In the circuit in the figure, if no current flows through the galvanometer when the key K is closed, the bridge is balanced. The balancing condition for bridge is

AIIMS 2018 Physics - Current Electricity Question 10 English

22

In a series R-C circuit shown in figure, the applied voltage is 10 V and the voltage across capacitor is found to be 8V. Then, the voltage across R and the phase difference between current and the applied voltage will respectively be

AIIMS 2018 Physics - Alternating Current Question 1 English

23

A system $$S$$ consists of two coils $$A$$ and $$B$$. The coil $$A$$ carries a steady current $$I$$. While the coil $$B$$ is suspended nearby as shown in figure. Now, if the system is heated, so as to raise the temperature of two coils steadily, then

AIIMS 2018 Physics - Electromagnetic Induction Question 1 English

24

A long straight wire, carrying current $$I$$ is bent at its mid-point to form an angle of $$45^{\circ}$$. Induction of magnetic field (in tesla) at point $$P$$, distant $$R$$ from point of bending is equal to

AIIMS 2018 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 1 English

25

An element $$d l=d x \hat{\mathbf{i}}$$ (where, $$d x=1 \mathrm{~cm}$$ ) is placed at the origin and carries a large current $$i=10 \mathrm{~A}$$. What is the magnetic field on the $$Y$$-axis at a distance of $$0.5 \mathrm{~m}$$ ?

26

The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field at any place is $$0.36 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~Wb} / \mathrm{m}^2$$. If the angle of dip at that place is $$60^{\circ}$$, then the value of vertical component of the earth's magnetic field will be (in $$\mathrm{Wb} / \mathrm{m}^2$$ )

27

Consider the following figure, a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 T is directed along the positive X-axis. The magnetic flux through top surface of the figure.

AIIMS 2018 Physics - Moving Charges and Magnetism Question 7 English

28

An ideal coil of $$10 \mathrm{~H}$$ is connected in series with a resistance of $$5 \Omega$$ and a battery of $$5 \mathrm{~V}$$. After $$2 \mathrm{~s}$$, after the connection is made, the current flowing (in ampere) in the circuit is

29

In the circuit, shown the galvanometer $$G$$ of resistance $$60 \Omega$$ is shunted by a resistance $$r=0.02 \Omega$$. The current through $$R$$ is nearly $$1 \mathrm{~A}$$. The value of resistance $$R$$ (in ohm) is nearly

AIIMS 2018 Physics - Current Electricity Question 7 English

30

In a circuit $$L, C$$ and $$R$$ are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of frequency $$f$$. The current leads the voltage by $$45^{\circ}$$. The value of $$C$$ is

31

The graph between the energy log E of an electron and its de-Broglie wavelength log $$\lambda$$ will be

32

The half-life of a radioactive substance is $$20 \mathrm{~min}$$. The approximate time interval $$\left(t_2-t_1\right)$$ between the time $$t_2$$, when $$\frac{2}{3}$$ of it has decayed and time $$t_1$$ when $$\frac{1}{3}$$ of it had decayed is

33

AIIMS 2018 Physics - Laws of Motion Question 1 English

In the figure, mass of a ball is $$\frac{9}{5}$$ times mass of the rod. Length of rod is $$1 \mathrm{~m}$$. The level of ball is same as rod level. Find out time taken by the ball to reach at upper end of rod.

34

AIIMS 2018 Physics - Semiconductor Electronics Question 3 English

The diode used at a constant potential drop of 0.5 V at all currents and maximum power rating of 100 mW. What resistance must be connected in series diode, so that current in circuit is maximum?

35

An unpolarised beam of intensity $$2 a^2$$ passes through a thin polaroid. Assuming zero absorption in the polaroid, the intensity of emergent plane polarised light is

36

A gas consisting of a rigid diatomic molecules was initially under standard condition. Then, gas was compressed adiabatically to one-fifth of its initial volume. What will be the mean kinetic energy of a rotating molecule in the final state?

37

A diode detector is used to detect and amplitude modulated wave of 60% modulation by using a condenser of capacity 250 pF in parallel with a load resistance 100 k$$\Omega$$. Find the maximum modulated frequency which could be detected by it.

38

Red light of wavelength 5400 $$\mathop A\limits^o $$ from a distant source falls on a slit 0.80 mm wide. Calculate the distance between first two dark bands on each side of central bright band in the diffraction pattern observed on a screen place 1.4 m from the slit.

39

A circular loop of radius 0.3 cm lies parallel to a much bigger circular loop of radius 20 cm. The centre of the small loop on the axis of the bigger loop. The distance between their centres is 15 cm. If a current of 20 A flows through the smaller loop, then the flux linked with bigger drop is

40

In the adjoining circuit diagram, the readings of ammeter and voltmeter are 2 A and 120 V, respectively. If the value of R is 75$$\Omega$$, then the voltmeter resistance will be

AIIMS 2018 Physics - Current Electricity Question 1 English

41

Assertion A body is momentarily at rest at the instant, if it reverse the direction.

Reason A body cannot have acceleration, if its velocity is zero at a given instant of time.

42

Assertion The maximum height of projectile is always 25% of the maximum range.

Reason For maximum range, projectile should be projected at 90°.

43

Assertion Angle of repose is equal to angle of limiting friction.

Reason When a body is just at the point of motion, the force of friction of this stage is called as limiting friction.

44

Assertion Two particles moving in the same direction do not lose all their energy in completely inelastic collision.

Reason Principle of conservation of momentum holds true for all kinds of collisions.

45

Assertion The angular momentum of system always remain constant.

Reason For a system, $$\tau_{\mathrm{ext}}=\frac{d L}{d t}=0$$

46

Assertion A pendulum is falling freely its time period becomes zero.

Reason Freely falling body has the acceleration equal to g.

47

Assertion Smaller drop of water resist deformation forces better than the larger drops.

Reason Excess pressure inside drop is inversely proportional to its radius.

48

Assertion In isothermal process, whole of the heat energy supplied to the body is converted into internal energy.

Reason According to the first law of thermodynamics,

$$\Delta Q=\Delta U+\Delta W$$

49

Assertion Internal energy of an ideal gas does not depend on volume of gas.

Reason Internal energy depends only on temperature of gas.

50

Assertion To hear different beats difference of the frequencies of two sources should be less than 10.

Reason More the number of beats more in the confusion.

51

Assertion Mass of a body decreases slightly when it is negatively charged.

Reason Charging is due to transfer of electrons.

52

Assertion A dielectric slab is inserted between plates of an isolated charged capacitor which remain same.

Reason Charge on an isolated system is conserved.

53

Assertion Terminal voltage of a cell is greater than emf of cell during charging of the cell.

Reason The emf of a cell is always greater than its terminal voltage.

54

Assertion A magnetic field interacts with a moving charge and not with a stationary charge.

Reason A moving charge produce a magnetic field.

55

Assertion Bulb generally get fused when they are switched on or off.

Reason When we switch on or off, a circuit current changes in it rapidly.

56

Assertion A convex mirror always make a virtual image.

Reason The ray always diverge after reflection from the convex mirror.

57

Assertion : If a glass slab is placed in front of one of the slits, then fringe with will decrease.

Reason : Glass slab will produce an additional path difference.

58

Assertion If electrons in an atom were stationary, then they would fall into the nucleus.

Reason Electrostatic force of attraction acts between negatively charged electrons and positive nucleus.

59

Assertion Radioactive nuclei emits $$\beta^{-}$$-particles.

Reason Electrons exist inside the nucleus.

60

Assertion Thickness of depletion layer is fixed in all semiconductor devices.

Reason No free charge carriers are available in depletion layer.

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