NDA General Ability 1st September 2024
Paper was held on Sun, Sep 1, 2024 4:30 AM
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English

1

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly. 

All human beings are fallible 

2

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly. 

His words were vague 

3

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly. 

She performed all her duties conscientiously

4

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly. 

These risks are incidental to the work of a firefighter  

5

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the answer sheet accordingly. 

She has always been disdainful of poor people  

6
What would come in blank space (1)?
7
What would come in blank space (2)?
8
What would come in blank space (3)?
9
What would come in blank space (4)?
10
What would come in blank space (5)?
11
What would come in blank space (6)?
12
What would come in blank space (7)?
13
What would come in blank space (8)?
14
What would come in blank space (9)?
15
What would come in blank space (10)?
16

Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative. 

Preeti suggests 

17

Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative. 

We saw 

18

Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative. 

Since you have been touring all day 

19

Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative. 

His condition is serious, but 

20

Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative. 

I hope the bus comes soon because  

21

Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative. 

Someone 

22

Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative. 

What would you do 

23

Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative. 

If I were you 

24

Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative. 

I wish 

25

Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative.

he efforts of the security services have not been quite  

26

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

A white lie 

27

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

Bad blood 

28

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

Count your blessings 

29

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

Have the last laugh 

30

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), (b), (c) or (d), which is the most appropriate meaning and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

Sit on the fence 

31

Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P,  Q, R and S. Given below each sentence have four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences and mark your response accordingly. 

P. good quality elementary education conforming 

Q. as a fundamental right of all children 

R. the Right to Education Act (RTE) mandates 

S. to the standards and norms specified in the Act 

32

Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P,  Q, R and S. Given below each sentence have four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences and mark your response accordingly. 

P. the conflicts and disputes in their mind 

Q. music not only relieves the burden 

R. on children and the young 

S. but also alleviates 

33

Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P,  Q, R and S. Given below each sentence have four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences and mark your response accordingly. 

P. but it is virtually covered by a dome-shaped 

Q. Antarctica is a continent 

R. nearly twice as large as Australia 

S. ice sheet nearly 2 miles thick 

34

Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P,  Q, R and S. Given below each sentence have four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences and mark your response accordingly. 

P. the global economic weight from the advanced economies 

Q. that there was a major shift in 

R. and Central Bank Governors, in recognition of the fact 

S. the G20 was formed in 1999, as a forum of Finance Ministers 

35

Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P,  Q, R and S. Given below each sentence have four sequences, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences and mark your response accordingly. 

P. aquaculture nation in the world and 

Q. India’s products are exported to many nations  

R. fish producing and the second largest 

S. India is the third largest 

36

Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word(s) belong(s) to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

Adders are the only poisonous snakes found across Britain 

37

Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word(s) belong(s) to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

She spoke to him once since he has been in town  

38

Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word(s) belong(s) to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

I don’t really want to go. Besides, it’s too late now 

39

Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word(s) belong(s) to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

Look at that man over there 

40

Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word class the underlined word(s) belong(s) to. Indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

The plane is ready for take-off

41

What according to the passage is the 'unwelcome form of the globalization'?

1. Globalization of the diseases

2. Elusive goal of globalization

3. History of fatal diseases

4. Selective use of antibiotics

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

42
According to the passage, globalisation of health has become imperative due to
43

According to the passage, resurgent diseases are affected by:

1. Medical practices

2. Overuse of antibiotics

3. Emergence of new strains

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

44
According to the passage, many new diseases are emerging due to change in land use because
45
What is the meaning of the word "epidemiology" in the passage?
46

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Sages and seers have cautioned that the path towards enlightenment is full of illusory traps.

47

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The officer reported the details of the mission in a monotonous manner.

48

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

There are many elusive questions in philosophy.

49

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Cleaning this mess is a mammoth task.

50

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The police department’s image was tarnished after the high-profile murder case.

General Science

1
Which one of the following statements about lysosomes is NOT correct ? 
2
Which of the following two cell organelles have their own genetic material ?  
3
Which one among the following tissues help to connect two bones ? 
4
Which one among the following is the source of energy in cells ?  
5
In which one among the following the vegetative propagation takes place through Eye Buds ?
6
The intermixing of particles of two different types of matter on their own is called 
7
Which one among the following separation techniques is used for blood tests in diagnostic laboratories ? 
8
Which one among the following elements is polyatomic ? 
9
Which of the following anions has a valency of -3 ?  
10
The mass of 0:5 mole of N2 gas is 
11
The chemical reaction : 2AgCl (s) → 2Ag (s) + Cl2 (g) takes place 
12
Which one among the following is commonly used as an ‘anti-skinning agent’ in paints ?  
13
Two resistances of 5.0 Ω and 7.0 Ω are connected in series and the combination is connected in parallel with a resistance of 36.0 Ω. The equivalent resistance of the combination of three resistors is 
14

Shown in the figure are two hollow cubes C1 and C2 of negligible mass partially filled (depicted by darkened area) with liquids of densities ρ1 and ρ2, respectively, floating in water (density ρw). The relationship between ρ1, ρ2 and ρw is 

NDA General Ability 1st September 2024 General Science - Physics Question 24 English

15
An astronaut whose weight on the Earth is 600 N experiences weightless- ness on International Space Station orbiting around the Earth. It means that
16

Which of the following statements give characteristics of contact forces?

1. It appears between an object when it is in contact with some other object

2. It satisfies the third law of motion

3. It may appear between a pair of solid and fluid

Select the answer using the code given below:

17
Which one among the. following figures correctly represents the ray diagram ? (Consider the lens to be thin)
18
Lightning is due to 
19
In which one among the following situations, the bulb ⊗ would glow the most ? (Consider all batteries are the same)  
20
Which one among the following diagrams may correctly represent the motion of a skydiver during a jump ? 
21
Which one of the following sketches correctly describes a lever of second class?
22

For an electric circuit given below, the correct combination of voltage (V) and current (I) is

NDA General Ability 1st September 2024 General Science - Physics Question 16 English

23
Which one among the following diseases is caused due to deficiency of Vitamin D in humans?
24
Which one among the following combinations most appropriately represent the components of balanced diet?
25
In which part or organ of the human body is cartilage NOT found?
26
Which part of nephron of the human kidney is responsible for filtration of blood for excretion?
27
Organisms of which of the following phylum are called sponges?
28
A point object is placed at the centre of curvature of a spherical concave mirror. Which one among the fol- lowing would be the correct location of image formed?
29

Which one among the following is correct for a person suffering from myopia?

30
A vehicle starts moving along a straight line path from rest. In first t seconds it moves with an acceleration of 2 m/s2 and then in next 10 seconds it moves with an acceleration of 5 m/s2. The total distance travelled by the vehicle is 550 m. The value of time t is
31
A pumpkin weighs 7.5 N. On sub- merging it completely in water, $\frac{3}{4}$L of water gets displaced. The acceleration due to gravity at the place where the pumpkin was weighed is 10 m/s2. Which one of the following is the correct value of the density of the pumpkin?
32
An incandescent electric bulb converts 20% of its power consumption into light, and the remaining power is dissipated as heat. The bulb's filament has a resistance of 200 Ω and 2 A current flows through it. If the bulb remains ON for 10 h and the rate of electricity charge is Rs. 5/unit, then which among the following is the correct amount for the money spent on producing light?
33
Which one of the following statements best defines the concept of heat?
34
The masses of two planets are in the ratio of 1:7. The ratio between their diameters is 2: 1. The ratio of forces which they exert on each other is
35
A car weighs 1000 kg. It is moving with a uniform velocity of 72 km/h towards a straight road. The driver suddenly presses the brakes. The car stops in 0.2 s. The retarding force applied on the car to stop it is
36
There is a ball of mass 320 g. It has 625 J potential energy when released freely from a height. The speed with which it will hit the ground is
37
Starting from rest a vehicle accelerates at the rate of 2 m/s2 towards east for 10 s. It then stops suddenly. It then accelerates again at a rate of 4√2 m/s2 for next 10 s towards south and then again comes to rest. The net displacement of the vehicle from the starting point is
38
Which one of the following is correct? 
39
Which one among the following processes is NOT part of chemical weathering?
40
What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy the first shell of an atom?
41
At which temperature does liquid water show maximum density?
42
Which one among the following has valency of 3?
43
Which one among the following is an example of oxidation reaction? 
44
Which one among the following fertilizers is a source of nitrogen? 
45
For Aluminium (Al) (atomic number: 13, mass number: 27), which one among the following statements is NOT correct?
46
The elemental composition of diamond is
47
Which one among the following is an example of chemical change?
48
Which one among the following is the correct focal length of a combination of lenses of power 2.5 D and -2.0 D?
49
The AC mains domestic supply current in India changes direction in every 
50
A block of mass 20 kg slides on a rough horizontal plane surface. Let the speed of the block at a particular instant is 10 m/s. It comes to rest after travelling a distance of 20 m. Which one of the following could be the magnitude of the frictional force?
51

Given below are the four cases in which certain heat transfer is taking place:

1. Ice is melting in a glass full of water

2. Water is boiling in an open container

3. A metal rod is heated in a furnace

4. A cup of coffee is allowed to cool on a table

In which of the above cases, the Newton's Law of Cooling is applicable ?

52

The figure given below shows the direction of the two forces P and Q acting on a skydiver :

NDA General Ability 1st September 2024 General Science - Physics Question 1 English Which one among the following statements is correct about the two forces?

General Studies

1
Taxila was the capital of which one among the following Mahajanapadas of ancient India?
2
Who among the following was the last Governor-General of India before the office was permanently abolished?
3

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of setting up of Planning Commission in the 1950s in India?

1. To increase production and offering opportunities to all for employment

2. To make assessment of all resources of the country

Select the answer using the code given below:

4

Which among the following statements with regard to Five Year Plans in India is/are correct?

1. The First and Ninth five year plans accorded high priority to agriculture

2. The Third Plan was based on the Harrod-Domar Model

3. Seventh Plan focused on food, work and productivity

4. The Ninth five year plan emphasized on massive investments in public sector

Select the answer using the code given below:

5

Before the inception of the First Five year Plan, which among the following Plans were initiated in India?

1. Bombay Plan

2. Peoples Plan

3. Sarvodaya Plan

4. Gandhian Plan

Select the answer using the code given below :

6
Any land that is left fallow for more than five years is termed as
7
Which statement is NOT correct with reference to Andaman and Nicobar Islands?
8
Which one among the following local winds is NOT related to Mediterranean Sea?
9
Which one among the following is a landlocked water body?
10
Which one among the following statements with reference to Benguela current is NOT correct?
11
The lowest part of most bolsons is occupied by a landform called playa. Which category of landform formation does it represent?
12
Which one of the following statements about the Industrial Revolution is correct?
13
The first cotton mill in British India which began production in 1856 was set up by
14

Consider the following statements about the Linguistic Reorganization of the States:

1. Gandhiji, in 1948, had argued for the reorganization of provinces on a linguistic basis

2. The Constituent Assembly recommended it to be incorporated in the Constitution of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

15
Inspired by the Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi, in Tamilnadu, C Rajagopalachari led a salt march from
16
Acharya Vinoba Bhave received the first donation of land under the Bhoodan Movement at
17
Maize (makka) was introduced into India via
18

Which of the following pairs of Himalayan Passes and the Ranges in which they are located is/are correctly matched?

1. Zoji La - Great Himalayas

2. Banihal Pass - Pir Panjal Range

3. Photu La - Ladakh Range

4. Khardung La - Karakoram Range

Select the answer using the code given below:

19
Which one among the following state- ments with reference to the black cotton soils of India is NOT correct?
20

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List – I

(Hydroelectric Power Plant)

List - II

(State)

A.

Doyang

1.

Arunachal Pradesh

B.

Gomuti

2.

Assam

C.

Kapili

3.

Tripura

D.

Ranganadi

4.

Nagaland
21

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List – I

(Tropical Cyclone)

List - II

(Country)

A.

Hurricanes

1.

China

B.

Willy Willy

2.

Philippines

C.

Baguio

3.

Australia

D.

Typhoons

4.

USA
22

Consider the following facts of the rivers of the Indus system:

1. The Satluj originates in Tibet where it is known as Langchen Khambab

2. The Satluj is a classic example of an antecedent river

3. The Jhelum is the largest tributary of the Indus System

Select the answer using the code given below:

23
Which one of the following is an example of both an igneous as well as a metamorphic rock?
24
Vijayanagara rulers claimed that they were ruling on behalf of
25
Domingo Paes describes a king in these words: 'Of medium height, and of fair complexion and good figure, rather fat than thin; he has on his face signs of smallpox'. Identify the king from the options given below.
26

In which Schedule of the Constitution of India, provisions as to disquali- fication on grounds of defection are given?

27

Consider the following statements:

1. The duties of the Attorney General of India are to give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters, and to perform such other duties of a legal character, as may from time to time be referred to or assigned to him by the President of India

2. The Solicitor General of India is the secondary Law Officer of the country, who assists the Attorney General, and is himself assisted by several Additional Solicitor Generals of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

28

Which of the following Committees does NOT consist of Members from the Upper House of the Parliament?

1. Public Accounts Committee

2. Estimates Committee

3. Committee on Public Under- takings

Select the answer using the code given below :

29
In the passing of a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha has limited powers in that it shall return the Bill, with or without any recommendation, within the stipulated time of
30

Which of the following statements with regard to Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India is/are correct?

1. Freedoms under this Article are not absolute

2. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the exercise of freedoms under this Article

Select the answer using the code given below:

31
Which of the following is NOT a part of the five principles enshrined in the 'Panchsheel' agreement signed by India and China in 1954 ?
32
Freedom Fighter Kanaklata Barua sacrificed her life while participating in
33
Where is the Coriolis Effect the largest ?
34

In which among the following states in India, the Sun rays are never perpendicular?

1. Bihar

2. Chhattisgarh

3. Manipur

4. Rajasthan

Select the answer using the code given below:

35

Which of the following is/are east flowing rivers in India?

1. Palar

2. Periyar

3. Pennar

4. Kalinadi

Select the answer using the code given below:

36

Which of the following tributaries is/are correctly matched with the Deccan Rivers?

Tributary

River

1.

Bhavani Krishna

2.

Kabini Kaveri

3.

Manjra Godavari

4.

Bhima Mahanadi


Select the answer using the code given below:

37
Which one of the following is found in appreciable amount in Laterite soil in India?
38

Consider the following statements regarding River Brahmaputra :

1. It rises in Tibet, near Lake Mansarovar

2. It takes a "U" turn near Namcha Barwa and enters India through a gorge

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

39

"Not me, but you" is the motto of which one of the following youth organizations/schemes?

40

"Fitness ka dose, aadha ghanta roz" campaign, is associated with

41

Consider the following statements:

1. Kozhikode has been included in UNESCO's creative cities network as the 'City of Music'

2. Garba of Gujarat has been declared by UNESCO as an intangible cultural heritage

3. Gwalior has been included in UNESCO's creative cities net- work as the 'City of Literature'

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

42
ASEAN-India Millet Festival-2023, organized by Indian Mission to ASEAN, was held in which one of the following countries?
43

Consider the following statements:

1. First Indian Military Heritage festival was inaugurated in Octo- ber 2023 in Pune

2. First Green Hydrogen Fuel Cell Bus was flagged off in India in Bangalore

3. South Africa chaired the 15th BRICS Summit held in 2023

4. Viksit Bharat Sankalp Yatra was flagged off in 2023 from Jharkhand

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

44

Which of the following statements about 'ULLAS' scheme is/are NOT correct?

1. It's a Centrally Sponsored scheme which aims at securing childhood for street children

2. It's a scheme aligned with National Education Policy-2020 which aims at empowering adults aged 15 or above who could not get due schooling

Select the answer using the code given below:

45
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about NATO ?
46
In January 2024, India has entered into a bilateral agreement through which it will provide grant assistance to a country to construct a 20 feet Bailey bridge. Identify the country.
47
Which one among the following Joint Military Exercises was NOT conducted between India and USA?
48

Consider the following statements:

1. India has secured 10th rank in International Shipment category in World Bank's Logistics Perform- ance Index Report-2023

2. Global Maritime India Summit- 2023 was held in Vishakhapatnam

3. 'Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047' was launched during Global Maritime India Summit-2023

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

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