English
1. Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of 2. Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of 3. Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of 4. Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of 5. Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of 6. What would come in blank space (1)? 7. What would come in blank space (2)? 8. What would come in blank space (3)? 9. What would come in blank space (4)? 10. What would come in blank space (5)? 11. What would come in blank space (6)? 12. What would come in blank space (7)? 13. What would come in blank space (8)? 14. What would come in blank space (9)? 15. What would come in blank space (10)? 16. Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sen 17. Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sen 18. Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sen 19. Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sen 20. Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sen 21. Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sen 22. Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sen 23. Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sen 24. Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sen 25. Directions : Each of the following items features one part of a sentence followed by four alternatives. Complete the sen 26. Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), 27. Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), 28. Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), 29. Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), 30. Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the response (a), 31. Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. T 32. Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. T 33. Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. T 34. Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. T 35. Directions : Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. T 36. Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word cla 37. Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word cla 38. Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word cla 39. Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word cla 40. Directions : Each of the following sentences has word(s) underlined. Read the sentence carefully and find which word cla 41. What according to the passage is the 'unwelcome form of the globalization'?
1. Globalization of the diseases
2. Elusiv 42. According to the passage, globalisation of health has become imperative due to 43. According to the passage, resurgent diseases are affected by:
1. Medical practices
2. Overuse of antibiotics
3. Emerg 44. According to the passage, many new diseases are emerging due to change in land use because 45. What is the meaning of the word "epidemiology" in the passage? 46. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the 47. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the 48. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the 49. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the 50. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the
General Science
1. Which one of the following statements about lysosomes is NOT correct ? 2. Which of the following two cell organelles have their own genetic material ? 3. Which one among the following tissues help to connect two bones ? 4. Which one among the following is the source of energy in cells ? 5. In which one among the following the vegetative propagation takes place through Eye Buds ? 6. The intermixing of particles of two different types of matter on their own is called 7. Which one among the following separation techniques is used for blood tests in diagnostic laboratories ? 8. Which one among the following elements is polyatomic ? 9. Which of the following anions has a valency of -3 ? 10. The mass of 0:5 mole of N2 gas is 11. The chemical reaction : 2AgCl (s) → 2Ag (s) + Cl2 (g) takes place 12. Which one among the following is commonly used as an ‘anti-skinning agent’ in paints ? 13. Two resistances of 5.0 Ω and 7.0 Ω are connected in series and the combination is connected in parallel with a 14. Shown in the figure are two hollow cubes C1 and C2 of negligible mass partially filled (depicted by darkened area) with 15. An astronaut whose weight on the Earth is 600 N experiences weightless- ness on International Space Station orbiting aro 16. Which of the following statements give characteristics of contact forces?
1. It appears between an object when it is in 17. Which one among the. following figures correctly represents the ray diagram ? (Consider the lens to be th 18. Lightning is due to 19. In which one among the following situations, the bulb ⊗ would glow the most ? (Consider all batteries are the& 20. Which one among the following diagrams may correctly represent the motion of a skydiver during a jump ? 21. Which one of the following sketches correctly describes a lever of second class? 22. For an electric circuit given below, the correct combination of voltage (V) and current (I) is
23. Which one among the following diseases is caused due to deficiency of Vitamin D in humans? 24. Which one among the following combinations most appropriately represent the components of balanced diet? 25. In which part or organ of the human body is cartilage NOT found? 26. Which part of nephron of the human kidney is responsible for filtration of blood for excretion? 27. Organisms of which of the following phylum are called sponges? 28. A point object is placed at the centre of curvature of a spherical concave mirror. Which one among the fol- lowing would 29. Which one among the following is correct for a person suffering from myopia?
30. A vehicle starts moving along a straight line path from rest. In first t seconds it moves with an acceleration of 2 m/s2 31. A pumpkin weighs 7.5 N. On sub- merging it completely in water, $\frac{3}{4}$L of water gets displaced. The acceleration 32. An incandescent electric bulb converts 20% of its power consumption into light, and the remaining power is dissipated as 33. Which one of the following statements best defines the concept of heat? 34. The masses of two planets are in the ratio of 1:7. The ratio between their diameters is 2: 1. The ratio of forces which 35. A car weighs 1000 kg. It is moving with a uniform velocity of 72 km/h towards a straight road. The driver suddenly press 36. There is a ball of mass 320 g. It has 625 J potential energy when released freely from a height. The speed with which it 37. Starting from rest a vehicle accelerates at the rate of 2 m/s2 towards east for 10 s. It then stops suddenly. It then ac 38. Which one of the following is correct? 39. Which one among the following processes is NOT part of chemical weathering? 40. What is the maximum number of electrons that can occupy the first shell of an atom? 41. At which temperature does liquid water show maximum density? 42. Which one among the following has valency of 3? 43. Which one among the following is an example of oxidation reaction? 44. Which one among the following fertilizers is a source of nitrogen? 45. For Aluminium (Al) (atomic number: 13, mass number: 27), which one among the following statements is NOT correct? 46. The elemental composition of diamond is 47. Which one among the following is an example of chemical change? 48. Which one among the following is the correct focal length of a combination of lenses of power 2.5 D and -2.0 D? 49. The AC mains domestic supply current in India changes direction in every 50. A block of mass 20 kg slides on a rough horizontal plane surface. Let the speed of the block at a particular instant is 51. Given below are the four cases in which certain heat transfer is taking place:
1. Ice is melting in a glass full of wat 52. The figure given below shows the direction of the two forces P and Q acting on a skydiver :
Which one among the follow
General Studies
1. Taxila was the capital of which one among the following Mahajanapadas of ancient India? 2. Who among the following was the last Governor-General of India before the office was permanently abolished? 3. Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of setting up of Planning Commission in the 1950s in India?
1. To inc 4. Which among the following statements with regard to Five Year Plans in India is/are correct?
1. The First and Ninth fiv 5. Before the inception of the First Five year Plan, which among the following Plans were initiated in India?
1. Bombay Pl 6. Any land that is left fallow for more than five years is termed as 7. Which statement is NOT correct with reference to Andaman and Nicobar Islands? 8. Which one among the following local winds is NOT related to Mediterranean Sea? 9. Which one among the following is a landlocked water body? 10. Which one among the following statements with reference to Benguela current is NOT correct? 11. The lowest part of most bolsons is occupied by a landform called playa. Which category of landform formation does it rep 12. Which one of the following statements about the Industrial Revolution is correct? 13. The first cotton mill in British India which began production in 1856 was set up by 14. Consider the following statements about the Linguistic Reorganization of the States:
1. Gandhiji, in 1948, had argued f 15. Inspired by the Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi, in Tamilnadu, C Rajagopalachari led a salt march from 16. Acharya Vinoba Bhave received the first donation of land under the Bhoodan Movement at 17. Maize (makka) was introduced into India via 18. Which of the following pairs of Himalayan Passes and the Ranges in which they are located is/are correctly matched?
1. 19. Which one among the following state- ments with reference to the black cotton soils of India is NOT correct? 20. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List – I
21. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List – I
22. Consider the following facts of the rivers of the Indus system:
1. The Satluj originates in Tibet where it is known as 23. Which one of the following is an example of both an igneous as well as a metamorphic rock? 24. Vijayanagara rulers claimed that they were ruling on behalf of 25. Domingo Paes describes a king in these words: 'Of medium height, and of fair complexion and good figure, rather fat than 26. In which Schedule of the Constitution of India, provisions as to disquali- fication on grounds of defection are given?
27. Consider the following statements:
1. The duties of the Attorney General of India are to give advice to the Government 28. Which of the following Committees does NOT consist of Members from the Upper House of the Parliament?
1. Public Account 29. In the passing of a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha has limited powers in that it shall return the Bill, with or withou 30. Which of the following statements with regard to Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. Freedoms 31. Which of the following is NOT a part of the five principles enshrined in the 'Panchsheel' agreement signed by India and 32. Freedom Fighter Kanaklata Barua sacrificed her life while participating in 33. Where is the Coriolis Effect the largest ? 34. In which among the following states in India, the Sun rays are never perpendicular?
1. Bihar
2. Chhattisgarh
3. Manip 35. Which of the following is/are east flowing rivers in India?
1. Palar
2. Periyar
3. Pennar
4. Kalinadi
Select the an 36. Which of the following tributaries is/are correctly matched with the Deccan Rivers?
Tributary
R 37. Which one of the following is found in appreciable amount in Laterite soil in India? 38. Consider the following statements regarding River Brahmaputra :
1. It rises in Tibet, near Lake Mansarovar
2. It takes 39. "Not me, but you" is the motto of which one of the following youth organizations/schemes?
40. "Fitness ka dose, aadha ghanta roz" campaign, is associated with
41. Consider the following statements:
1. Kozhikode has been included in UNESCO's creative cities network as the 'City of M 42. ASEAN-India Millet Festival-2023, organized by Indian Mission to ASEAN, was held in which one of the following countries 43. Consider the following statements:
1. First Indian Military Heritage festival was inaugurated in Octo- ber 2023 in Pune 44. Which of the following statements about 'ULLAS' scheme is/are NOT correct?
1. It's a Centrally Sponsored scheme which a 45. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about NATO ? 46. In January 2024, India has entered into a bilateral agreement through which it will provide grant assistance to a countr 47. Which one among the following Joint Military Exercises was NOT conducted between India and USA? 48. Consider the following statements:
1. India has secured 10th rank in International Shipment category in World Bank's Lo
1
NDA General Ability 1st September 2024
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1.33
Which of the following statements about 'ULLAS' scheme is/are NOT correct?
1. It's a Centrally Sponsored scheme which aims at securing childhood for street children
2. It's a scheme aligned with National Education Policy-2020 which aims at empowering adults aged 15 or above who could not get due schooling
Select the answer using the code given below:
1
1 only
2
2 only
3
Both 1 and 2
4
Neither 1 nor 2
2
NDA General Ability 1st September 2024
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1.33
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about NATO ?
1
It was formed out of the signing of the Washington Treaty
2
Russia is not a member of this organization
3
It derives its authority from the UN Charter
4
Finland is its latest member
3
NDA General Ability 1st September 2024
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1.33
In January 2024, India has entered into a bilateral agreement through which it will provide grant assistance to a country to construct a 20 feet Bailey bridge. Identify the country.
1
Nepal
2
Bangladesh
3
Bhutan
4
Myanmar
4
NDA General Ability 1st September 2024
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1.33
Which one among the following Joint Military Exercises was NOT conducted between India and USA?
1
Yudhabhyas
2
Vajra Prahar
3
Malabar
4
Varuna
Paper analysis
Total Questions
English
50
General Science
52
General Studies
48
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