NDA General Ability 16 April 2023
Paper was held on Sun, Apr 16, 2023 4:30 AM
View Questions

English

1

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) Over long periods of time, (b) layers of sediments builds up (c) to a height of a few kilometers. (d) No Error

2

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) When a gas is (b) cooled down it turns into a liquid (c) from a process called condensation. (d) No Error

3

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) If you want (b) to know the news (c) you can read a newspaper. (d) No Error

4

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) Columbus made his (b) first voyage from Europe to America (c) on 1492. (d) No Error

5

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) Whenever the sky is (b) clear, you can see (c) the stars in the night. (d) No Error

6

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) I'm not working tomorrow, (b) so I don't had to (c) get up early. (d) No Error

7

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) She didn't (b) tell anybody (c) about her plans. (d) No Error

8

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) She wouldn't have (b) has an accident, (c) if she had driven carefully. (d) No Error

9

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) I will watch film (b) if I finish the work (c) in time. (d) No Error

10

Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) In 1989, the government (b) did an about-face and Iran restored (c) it's family planning program. (d) No Error

11

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

During the pandemic the indigent people had to suffer a lot.

12

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

She had no idea what made him angry in one minute and jovial the next.

13

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

It is sheer lunacy to drive a car in this frosty weather.

14

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Operating on a child with cancer needs meticulous planning and teamwork.

15

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The thrill of over-speeding the vehicle can be exhilarating, but it is important not to take the consequences lightly.

16

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The redemption will now depend on his new strategy of inclusiveness.

17

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Only three candidates are now in contention for the title.

18

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

All my fishing paraphernalia is in the car.

19

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The public watched in astonishment as he took a sudden jump from the bridge.

20

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Drinking inordinate amount of liquor is not good for health.

21

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.

because I feel Q you remember it better R when you write something, S I make at least three drafts of a song

The correct sequence should be:

22

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.

for hours in the shop Q a gunman who helda hostage S demanded ransom of ₹10 lakh

The correct sequence should be:

23

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.

living in Russia Q country immediately R Ukraine has urged its citizens S to leave the

The correct sequence should be:

24

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.

ripping roofs off houses and raising fears ofcoast of Madagascar in the early hours,cyclone Emnati crashed into the southeasternflooding and food shortages in the region

The correct sequence should be:

25

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.

ecology is protected and aquatic life thrives Q we need to utilize the resources of water R for different purposes while S ensuring that its natural

The correct sequence should be:

26

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.

very difficult Q the poor visibility R made the movement of traffic S due to fog

The correct sequence should be:

27

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.

avenues for the patients to indict Q but rarely is it the other way round R there are multiple legal S the doctors

The correct sequence should be:

28

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.

flight, and each person Q her own journey R life is a solo S makes his or

The correct sequence should be:

29

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.

made it evolve Q technologies and equipment has R into a rare centre of excellence S adoption of the latest

The correct sequence should be:

30

Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence correctly and mark your response accordingly.

The correct sequence should be:

(P) please mark the same /(Q) be made in response to this notice /(R) if you have any complaint to/(S) to the concerned authority

 

31

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The parental support can fortify a child's learning.

32

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Now we can have another dazzling thought, as an outcome of my brilliant research!

33

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The group held some clandestine meetings to resolve the matter.

34

Directions:Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.

In the winters, the countryside view is bleak and the house is drafty.

35

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Amid commotion the leader and his supporters remained passive.

36

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.

He had the audacity to blame him.

37

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

They are making plans for the abatement of the nuisance within a specified time.

38

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.

There is exponential growth in the development of the scientific researches in the recent few decades.

39

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

He was known for his sagacity.

40

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The river Ganges culminates in the Bay of Bengal.

41

Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).

The lion's share

42

Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).

Spill the beans

43

Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).

Cook someone's goose

44

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).

Disappear into thin air

45

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).

Put the screws on

46

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).

Sit on the fence

47

Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).

Be as sharp as a tack

48

Directions:  Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).

From pillar to post

49

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).

Heath Robinson

50

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).

As thick as thieves

General Science

1

Two identical spring balances S1 and S2 are connected one after the other and are held vertically as shown in the figure. A mass of 10 kg is hanging from S2. If the readings on S1 and S2 are W1 and W2 respectively, then :

NDA General Ability 16 April 2023 General Science - Physics Question 150 English

2
A stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a 20 m high building with a speed of 12 m/s. It hits the ground at a distance R from the building. Taking g = 10 m/s2 and neglecting air resistance will give :
3
A sphere of volume V is made of a material with lower density than water. While on Earth, it floats on water with its volume f1V (f1 < 1) submerged. On the other hand, on a spaceship accelerating with acceleration a < g (g is the acceleration due to gravity on Earth) in outer space, its submerged volume in water is f2V. Then:
4

Two identical containers X and Y are connected at the bottom by a thin tube of negligible volume. The tube has a valve in it, as shown in the figure. Initially container X has a liquid filled up to height h in it and container Y is empty. When the valve is opened, both containers have equal amount of liquid in equilibrium. If the initial (before the valve is opened) potential energy of the liquid is P1 and the final potential energy is P2 then :

NDA General Ability 16 April 2023 General Science - Physics Question 147 English

5
A particle is moving in a circle of radius R with a constant speed v. Its average acceleration over the time when it moves over half the circle is :
6
Two forces of 5⋅0 N each are acting on a point mass. If the angle between the forces is 60°, then the net force acting on the point mass has magnitude close to :
7
Who among the following is not a recipient of Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2022?
8

Consider the following statements regarding cell wall composition :

1. Bacterial cell wall is made of peptidoglycan.

2. Fungal cell wall is made of cellulose.

3. Animals lack cell wall and have extracellular matrix made up of sugar and proteins.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

9
Which one of the following structures is not present in a prokaryotic cell?
10
In a plant cell, which one of the following contains their own DNA?
11
One advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that it helps species to survive over long evolutionary time. This is because sexual reproduction produces :
12
Which one of the following structures or components is not always present in living cells?
13
Browning of the chopped apple can be minimized by :
14
Which of the hydrocarbons are arranged as per the increasing order of their boiling points?
15
Which one of the following apparatus is used for separating benzene and water mixture?
16
An iron nail dipped in copper sulphate solution turns brown. This is due to which one of the following types of reactions?
17
Among the following, which is not the correct method for keeping the curd?
18
Toothpaste prevents tooth decay by:
19

A rectangle ABCD is kept in front of a concave mirror of focal length f with its corners A and B being, respectively, at distances 2f and 3f from the mirror with AB along the principal axis as shown in the figure. It forms an image A'B'C'D' in front of the mirror. What is the ratio of B'C' to A'D'?

NDA General Ability 16 April 2023 General Science - Physics Question 144 English

20

Shown in the figure are two plane mirrors XY and YZ (XY ⊥ YZ) joined at their edge. Also shown is a light ray falling on one of the mirrors and reflected back parallel to its original path as a result of this arrangement. The two mirrors are now rotated by an angle θ to their new position X'YZ', as shown. As a result the new reflected ray is at an angle α from the original reflected ray. Then :

NDA General Ability 16 April 2023 General Science - Physics Question 143 English

21
A railway wagon (open at the top) of mass M1 is moving with speed v1 along a straight track. As a result of rain, after some time it gets partially filled with water so that the mass of the wagon becomes M2 and speed becomes v2. Taking the rain to be falling vertically and the water stationery inside the wagon, the relation between the two speeds v1 and v2 is :
22
Which one of the following statements is not true for a flute, a musical instrument?
23
A positive charge is moving towards south in a space where magnetic field is pointing in the north direction. The moving charge will experience :
24
Which one of the following statements about X-rays is not true?
25
Mica is mainly used in:
26
Organisms capable of using CO2 as principal carbon source are called:
27
When yeast cells are O2 starved, fermentation serves as the source of energy. This results in the production of:
28
During a laboratory experiment, a student immerses epidermal leaf peel in a hypertonic solution. After some time, the student examined the cells under a microscope and observed that:
29
Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of fungi?
30
Which one of the following statements about bryophytes is not correct?
31
What is the specific purpose of using potassium hydroxide during the saponification process?
32
Which one of the following is the correct arrangement of metals in the decreasing order of their reactivity?
33
Which among the following statements is not correct with respect to allotropes of Carbon?
34
Which among the following is the popular method for manufacture of ammonia?
35
For manufacturing of glass, which among the following is used as a source of silica?
36
Which among the following is the correct arrangement of halogens in the increasing order of their oxidizing nature?
37
Copper sulphate crystals available in the market are blue coloured crystals. By careful heating, they turn to white colour. Which one of the following is responsible for the blue colour?
38
Equal volume of all gases, when measured at the same temperature and pressure, contain an equal number of particles. Who proposed the above law?
39
Airbags work on the principle of a chemical reaction triggered by the impact producing a gaseous product that causes a sudden volume change. Which one among the following chemical conversions is responsible for this?
40
Which one of the following astronomers proved that the Earth and other planets revolve around the Sun?
41
Sand falls vertically on a conveyor belt at a work rate of 0⋅1 kg/s. In order to keep the belt moving at a uniform speed of 2 m/s, the force required to be applied on the belt is :
42
The power required to lift a mass of 8⋅0 kg up a vertical distance of 4 m in 2 s is (taking acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2):
43
One block of 2⋅0 kg mass is placed on top of another block of 3⋅0 kg mass. The coefficient of static friction between the two blocks is 0⋅2. The bottom block is pulled with a horizontal force F such that both the blocks move together without slipping. Taking acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2, the maximum value of the frictional force is :
44
A mass is attached to a spring that hangs vertically. The extension produced in the spring is 6 cm on Earth. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Moon is one-sixth of its value on the surface of the Earth. The extension of the spring on the Moon would be:
45
Which one of the following is an example of Second Class Lever?
46
In an electric circuit, a wire of resistance 10 Ω is used. If this wire is stretched to a length double of its original value, the current in the circuit would become :
47

What is the total resistance in the following circuit element?

NDA General Ability 16 April 2023 General Science - Physics Question 132 English

48
Which one of the following statements is true?
49
An electric bulb is rated as 220 V and 80 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power rating would be:
50
In the dispersion of white light by a common glass prism, which one among the following is correct?
51
Which one among the following is true for the speed of sound in a given medium?
52
Which one of the following telescopes contains only mirrors?

General Studies

1
Which one of the following is not an igneous rock?
2

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Hypocenter is the point on the surface of the Earth, nearest to the focus.

2. Velocity of earthquake waves is higher in denser materials.

3. P waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface of the Earth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

3
In terms of geological time scale, the quaternary period consists of two epochs. They are:
4
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of arrangement of the given planets in descending order of their density (in gm/cm3)?
5
Which one of the following is not a cold current?
6
The process of Podsolization is predominantly found in:
7
Joint Military exercise 'Keen Sword 23' was conducted between :
8
The Battle of Rezang La, an epic battle in hostile conditions, was fought by the Indian Army in:
9

Consider the following statements about 'Exercise Sea Vigil-22':

1. Its aim is to assess India's preparedness in the domain of Maritime security and coastal defence.

2. Naval forces of USA and Japan also took part in the exercise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

10

Consider the following statements:

1. England is the only country that won the ICC T20 World Cup twice.

2. Virat Kohli is the only player to be adjudged as the Player of the Series in the ICC T20 World Cup twice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

11
Freedom fighter Kanaklata Barua was martyred in:
12
Which one among the following statements about the Mansabdari system is correct?
13
Which Governor General of Bengal underwent impeachment proceedings in the British Parliament?
14
Who among the following composed the 'Prayag Prashasti' of Samudragupta?
15
Which one of the following kingdoms was founded by the two brothers Harihar and Bukka?
16
At which one of the following places did the Danes establish their settlement in India?
17
Which one of the following is not a main greenhouse gas?
18
Which one among the following is the northernmost geographical location?
19

Consider the following statements:

1. Distance between the longitudes becomes zero on North Pole and South Pole.

2. Distance between the longitudes is maximum on the Equator.

3. Number of longitudes is more than number of latitudes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

20
Which one among the following states is the leading producer of Manganese in India?
21
According to Koppen's climatic classifications, the Great Northern Plains of India have which one of the following climates?
22

Which of the following statements about Lachit Borphukan is/are correct?

1. He was a General of the Ahom Force.

2. He is known for his leadership in the Battle of Saraighat.

3. Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal is given to the best cadet at the National Defence Academy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

23
The 4th edition of joint military exercise 'DUSTLIK' between the Indian Army and the Uzbekistan Army was held in :
24
Which of the following is India's first privately developed rocket launched by ISRO recently?
25
Which one among the following villages was recently declared as India's first 24 × 7 solar-powered village?
26
Tableaux of which one of the following States was adjudged the best in the Republic Day Parade, 2023?
27
Which one among the following districts of Eastern India held a referendum in 1947 to decide whether or not to join Pakistan?
28
Which one of the following statements about Rabatak inscription is not correct?
29
Who among the following was author of the famous Sanskrit work 'Mrichchhakatika'?
30
Yashovarman was ruler of which one of the following kingdoms?
31
Which one among the following rulers established Pataliputra as the capital of the Magadhan Empire?
32

Which of the following scheme(s) is/are included under Bharatmala Pariyojana?

1. Develop the road connectivity to border areas

2. Development of coastal roads

3. Improvement in the efficiency of National Corridors

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

33
Deendayal Port was earlier known as:
34
The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School of Indian Army is situated at:
35
In the soil-forming regime, which one of the following occurs in a region where evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation significantly?
36
Which one of the following is found in the innermost part of the Earth?
37

Which of the following tree species is/are found on Himalayas?

1. Oak

2. Rhododendron

3. Rosewood

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

38
Which one of the following is the lowermost/innermost intrusive igneous rock?
39
If it is 12 noon in New Delhi, what will be the time in London, UK?
40

Which of the following positions of Sun, Earth and Moon is/are suitable for Spring Tide?

1. SYZYGY Conjunction

2. SYZYGY Opposition

3. Quadrature

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

41
Which Renaissance artist painted 'The Last Supper'?
42
Which one of the following European explorer conquered Mexico?
43
Near which one of the following cities in India have large statues of Kushana rulers been discovered?
44
The Treaty of Yandabo was concluded as part of which one of the following wars?
45
Plan allocation in agriculture and irrigation as percentage of total plan outlay was highest in:
46
The UN COP-27 Summit relates to:
47
Which one of the following tribes from India's North-East had the earliest known association with cultivation and production of tea?
48
By which one of the following amendments, was Article 51A, relating to the Fundamental Duties, inserted into the Constitution of India?
EXAM MAP
Medical
NEETAIIMS
Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering
GATE CSEGATE ECEGATE EEGATE MEGATE CEGATE PIGATE IN
Civil Services
UPSC Civil Service
Defence
NDA
Staff Selection Commission
SSC CGL Tier I
CBSE
Class 12