NDA General Ability 4 September 2022
Paper was held on Sun, Sep 4, 2022 4:30 AM
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English

1

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Human craving for comfort leads to anxiety.

2

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

His writings on the subject are obscure.

3

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The achievements of the team have been monumental in the last ten years.

4

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

His frail appearance was considered a merit.

5

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The novel depicts the hapless status of certain sections of society.  

6

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Her ideas have always been eccentric.

7

Directions : item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The land appears to be parched.

8

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The newly made road was smooth.

9

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Plenitude is one major cause for environmental degradation.

10

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The scholar quoted irrefutable evidence for her thesis.

11

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Ravi told his friend that he had no intention to malign him.

12

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Sheela appeared to be vexed.

13

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Do not hold any preconception about people.

14

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

All mortal elements are impermanent.

15

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The itinerary of the group’s visit to the hills was given to everyone. 

16

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The effort was to harness the power of nature.

17

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The fickle nature of humans is at times the cause of great innovations.

18

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The flood situation during the monsoon this year was calamitous. 

19

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He was appointed as the honorary member of the team.

20

Directions : Item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The church decided to excommunicate him for his actions.

21

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

to be successful (P) / what it is (Q) /  as a human being (R) / have you ever considered (S)

22

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

there is in all instance a single, (P) / surrender to the idea that (Q) / authoritative truth to be discovered and defended (R) / many people today are willing to (S)

23

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

 

for yourself the implications of death, (P) / if you do not reflect and understand (Q) / from one preacher to another (R) / you will go endlessly (S)

24

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

a way of understanding the world, (P) / a language represents (Q) / and relating them to one another (R) /  differentiating between things (S)

25

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

for India’s future (P) / mathematics and mathematical thinking (Q) / will be very important (R) / it is recognized that (S)

26

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

in agriculture and veterinary sciences through (P) / will be enhanced sharply (Q) / programmes integrated with general education (R) / the preparation of professionals (S)

27

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

and should shift the way (P) / are certainly very important, (Q) / we think about politics (R) / the issues raised by feminists and multiculturalists (S)

28

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

by which the genetic material of a plant is altered, (P) / pests and enhance its nutritional value (Q) / perhaps to make it more resistant to (R) / genetic modification (GM) is the science (S)

29

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

a much wider array of perspectives (P) / the editors of the present work (Q) / the history of social reforms from (R) / argue the need to understand (S)

30

Directions : in the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

for which she fought till the end (P) / as a champion of women’s rights, (Q) / Pandita Ramabai was truly remarkable (R) / as a pioneer in women’s education and (S)

31

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Our greatest glory is (a) / not in never falling but in (b) / raising every time we fall. (c) / No error (d)

32

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Rahim was one of that (a) / selected for (b) / the award. (c) No error (d)

33

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Sujini has met her old friend (a) / Guru before she shifted (b) / to Hyderabad two years ago. (c) / No error (d)

34

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

This monument happens (a) / to be one of the old monument (b) / in the city. (c) / No error (d)

35

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Amit told to Divya (a) / that he would come (b) / with a reward for her. (c)/  No error (d)

36

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

If you have asked me (a) / for the truth I would have told (b) / you at that time. (c) / No error (d)

37

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

If I will be the millionaire (a) / I would eradicate (b) / poverty from the country. (c) / No error (d)

38

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

A bird in the hand (a) / is better than (b) / two in the bush. (c) / No error (d)

39

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

The opportunity to attain foundational literacy (a) / and pursue a honest livelihood (b) / must be viewed as the basic right of every citizen. (c) / No error (d)

40

Directions : Item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part. Indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Though there is progress (a) / for different directions, (b) / why is there no brotherhood? (c) / No error (d)

41

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).

A queer fish

42

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Eat like a bird  

43

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Lock horns 

44

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Early bird 

45

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Be in the pink

46

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Be in the running 

47

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).

A sea change 

48

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).

A pearl of wisdom 

49

Directions : Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Be in seventh heaven 

50

Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c), and (d).

Be in the red 

General Science

1
Which one of the following statements about earthquake waves is not correct?
2
The commercial unit of electrical energy is kilowatt-hour (kWh), which is equal to
3
Which one of the following statements regarding a current-carrying solenoid is not correct?
4
An object is made of two equal parts by volume; one part has density ρ0, and the other part has density 2ρ0. What is the average density of the object?
5
A pressure cooker cooks food faster by
6
Which one of the following wavelengths corresponds to the wavelength of X-rays?
7
An electric bulb is connected to 220 V generator. The current drawn is 600 mA. What is the power of the bulb?
8
When the pitch of sound increases, which one of the following increases?
9
Which one of the following is the correct reactivity series with water?
10
Which one of the following metals floats in cold water?
11
Which one of the following solutions is not capable of conducting electricity?
12
To help deep-sea divers breathe, they carry cylinders of oxygen mixed with
13
Which of the following compounds undergoes/undergo thermal decomposition?
14
The transfer of electrical signals by nerve cells in human body is enabled by
15
Silver artifacts get tarnished in the air due to the formation of
16
Human eye can see objects at different distances with contrasting illuminations. This is due to
17
Which one of the following hormones increases the heartbeat in mammals?
18
The digestion of fat in human intestine is performed by
19
Which one of the following statements about animal cells and plant cells is correct?
20
Lymph is a tissue fluid present in intercellular spaces. It resembles to
21
The breakdown of glucose in cytoplasm results in the formation of
22
What is the nature of velocity-time graph for a car moving with uniform acceleration?
23
The amplitude of sound waves is measured in the units of
24
A current of 0.6 A is drawn by an electric bulb for 10 minutes. Which one of the following is the amount of electric charge that flows through the circuit?
25
A DC generator works on the principle of
26
The presence of magnetic field can be determined using which one of the following instruments?
27
Which one of the following statements about speed and velocity is correct?
28
Bronze is an alloy of
29
Which one of the following salts does not possess water of crystallization?
30
Bee sting leaves an acid which causes pain and irritation. The acid released is
31
Liquid vegetable oils are converted to solid margarine by the use of
32
The number of structural isomers of pentane is 
33
Vapours of sulphur escaping from a volcano often form a crust on the rocks. The process involved is an example of
34
Dry ice is used on a performing stage to produce mist in air. The process involved is an example of
35
C4H8 belongs to the homologous series of
36
The protein-digesting enzyme secreted by the stomach wall in case of mammals is called
37
Which one of the following will be resulted when an animal cell is surrounded by a medium with lower concentration of water?
38
The digestive enzymes are present in
39
After fertilization, the fruit and the seed are produced by
40
Two convex lenses have focal lengths of 50 cm and 25 cm, respectively. If these two lenses are placed in contact, then the net power of this combination will be equal to
41
Which one of the following terms cannot represent electrical power in a circuit?
42
The refractive index of crown glass is close to 3/2. If the speed of light in air is c, then the speed of light in the crown glass will be close to
43
The volume of a sealed packet is 1 liter and its mass is 800 g. The packet is first put inside the water with a density of 1 g cm-3 and then in another liquid B with a density of 1.5 g cm-3. Then which one of the following statements holds true?
44
A simple pendulum having bob of mass m and length of string l has time period of T. If the mass of the bob is doubled and the length of the string is halved, then the time period of this pendulum will be
45
In which one of the following devices, the light energy is converted into the electrical energy?
46
SONAR is a device that is used to measure the distance of underwater objects by a ship. Which of the following types of waves does it use for this purpose?
47
Which one of the following statements about the speed of sound waves is not correct?
48
The part of the human ear that converts the pressure variations associated with audible sound waves to electrical signals is 
49
Which one of the following metals is most commonly used for making filament of incandescent electric bulbs?
50
A bullet of mass 10 g is horizontally fired with velocity 300 m s-1 from a pistol of mass 1 kg. What is the recoil velocity of the pistol?
51
A microphone converts

General Studies

1
Which one of the following was composed by Harishena?
2

Consider the following events :

1. Establishment of the Planning Commission

2. Formation of the National Development Council (NDC)

3. Approval of the First Five-Year Plan by the NDC

4. Constitution of the National Planning Committee 

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above events?

3
Which one of the following battles could be seen as laying the formal foundation of the British Raj in India? 
4
Where in South India did the British East India Company construct a trading post in 1639?
5

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Dutch East India Company was formed after the formation of the British East India Company.

2. Vasco da Gama reached Calicut in 1498.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

6
In India, a cultivable land which is left uncultivated for more than a year but less than five years is labelled as
7
The major portion of the Great Artesian Basin in Australia is located in
8

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. India has one of the longest navigable inland water networks in the world.

2. Inland waterways presently help in transporting about 25 percent of the total cargo movement.

3. About 111 inland waterways have been declared as National Waterways under the National Waterways Act, 2016.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

9

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I

(Railway zone)

List-II

(Headquarters)

A.

East Central

1.

Gorakhpur

B.

North Eastern

2.

Jaipur

C.

Northeast Frontier

3.

Hajipur

D.

North Western

4.

Maligaon

10
Rafael Nadal defeated whom among the following to win the French Open Tennis Tournament, 2022?
11
eSanjeevani, the free telemedicine service of the Government of India, was recently integrated with the
12

Which of the following statements about ‘SHRESHTA’ scheme, launched recently by the Government of India, is/are correct?

1. This scheme is for residential education for students in high school in targeted areas.

2. It provides for high quality education for meritorious but poor Scheduled Caste students.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

13
In a recent judgement, the Supreme Court of India directed that every protected forest, national park and wildlife sanctuary across the country should have a mandatory eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of a minimum of
14
Who among the following is the author of the book, Tomb of Sand?
15
Who among the following invented the flying shuttle?
16
Where did Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose announce the formation of the Government of Free India in 1943?
17
Who among the following introduced the ‘Objective Resolution’ in the Constituent Assembly on 13th December, 1946?
18

Consider the following historical events :

1. Gandhi-Irwin Pact

2. Second Round Table Conference

3. Peasant Movement in Bardoli

4. Peasant Movement in Kheda

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order (starting from the earliest) of the above events? 

19

Which of the following statements about the Unionist Party is/are correct?

1. It was a political party representing the interests of landholders in Punjab.

2. It was opposed to the idea of the partition of India as India and Pakistan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

20
Which one of the following statements about metamorphic rocks is not correct? 
21
Which one of the following ‘discontinuities’ separates the Earth’s crust from the mantle?
22
Which one of the following cities of the world would represent the greatest linear velocity of rotation of the Earth?
23
What will happen if you are flying east across the International Date Line?
24
The Prime Meridian does not pass through which one of the following African countries? 
25
Piecing together the puzzle of geologic time to create and analyze historical maps of the Earth is known as
26
Which among the following has initiated a nationwide flagship campaign ‘Puneet Sagar Abhiyan’ to clean seashores/ ‘beaches and other water bodies of plastic and other waste materials?
27
Which among the following was the host country of the United Nations World Environment Day, 2022?
28
Which of the following Indian Naval Ships were decommissioned in June 2022?
29
India signed a deal with which one of the following countries to supply MH-60R helicopters to the Indian Navy?
30
With reference to India’s defence, the terms ‘Surat’ and ‘Udaygiri’ refer to
31
Who among the following laid the foundation of the Vijayanagara Empire?
32
The book, Kalila wa Dimna is an Arabic translation of the
33
Who among the following initiated the Bhoodan Movement?
34
Which one of the following rivers in India was not crossed by Alexander and his army?
35
Who among the following has described the medieval Indian postal system as of two kinds—the horse-post called ‘Uluq’ and the foot-post called ‘Dawa’?
36
At which among the following Harappan sites are fire altars found?
37

Consider the following statements on computation of density :

1. Physiological density can be computed by dividing the total population by the net cultivable area.

2. Agricultural density can be computed by dividing the total agricultural population by the net cultivable area.

3. Population density can be computed by dividing the total population by the total area.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

38
The formation of ‘tors’ on small rocky hills is associated with which among the following?
39

Consider the following statements about anticyclones :

1. Anticyclones are high pressure systems.

2. Air in the centre of the system must be subsiding.

3. Anticyclones are characterized by converging winds.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

40

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Earth’s crust is brittle in nature.

2. The mean thickness of the oceanic crust is 15 km, whereas that of the continental crust is around 30 km.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

41
In January 2020, the administration of which of the following Union Territories has been merged together?
42
Which one of the following is not a power of Panchayats under Article 243G?
43

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I

(Mahamatta)

List-II

(Function)

A.

Anta-mahamatta

1.

Women’s welfare

B.

Ithijhakha-mahamatta

2.

Spread of Dhamma

C.

Dhamma-mahamatta

3.

Associated with city

D.

Nagalaviyohalaka-ahamatta

4.

In-charge of frontier areas

44
Who among the following is the author of the Hastyayurveda ?
45
Which one of the following areas was acquired by the British under the Treaty of Deogaon, 1803?
46

Consider the following statements :

1. Maharashtra State has the maximum share of national highways (length in kilometres).

2. The nature of terrain and the level of economic development is one of the reasons for the maximum share of national highways in Maharashtra.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

47
The activities or services focussed on creation, rearrangement and interpretation of new and existing ideas are referred to as
48

Consider the following statements about ‘Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik (UDAN)’ scheme :

1. It is an innovative scheme to develop the regional aviation market.

2. It creates affordability yet economically viable and profitable flight on regional routes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

49

Consider the following statements :

1. The Sharavati river creates Jog Falls.

2. The Brahmani river is formed by the confluence of the Kosi and Sankh rivers.

3. The Tamraparni is a river of Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

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