English
1. Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each se 2. Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read ea 3. Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read ea 4. Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read ea 5. Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read ea 6. Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read ea 7. Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read ea 8. Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read ea 9. Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read ea 10. Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read ea 11. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), 12. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 13. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 14. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 15. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 16. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 17. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 18. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 19. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 20. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 21. Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. Th 22. Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumble 23. Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumble 24. Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumble 25. Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumble 26. Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumble 27. Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumble 28. Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumble 29. Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumble 30. Directions: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumble 31. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), (b), 32. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 33. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 34. Directions:Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordi 35. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 36. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 37. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 38. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 39. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 40. Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options, (a), 41. Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
The lion's share
42. Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Spill the beans
43. Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Cook someone's goose
44. Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most app 45. Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most app 46. Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most app 47. Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
Be as sharp as a tack
48. Directions: Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).
From pillar to post
49. Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the mos 50. Directions: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the mos
General Science
1. Two identical spring balances S1 and S2 are connected one after the other and are held vertically as shown in the figure 2. A stone is thrown horizontally from the top of a 20 m high building with a speed of 12 m/s. It hits the ground at a dist 3. A sphere of volume V is made of a material with lower density than water. While on Earth, it floats on water with its vo 4. Two identical containers X and Y are connected at the bottom by a thin tube of negligible volume. The tube has a valve i 5. A particle is moving in a circle of radius R with a constant speed v. Its average acceleration over the time when it mov 6. Two forces of 5⋅0 N each are acting on a point mass. If the angle between the forces is 60°, then the net force acting o 7. Who among the following is not a recipient of Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2022? 8. Consider the following statements regarding cell wall composition :
1. Bacterial cell wall is made of peptidoglycan.
2 9. Which one of the following structures is not present in a prokaryotic cell? 10. In a plant cell, which one of the following contains their own DNA? 11. One advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that it helps species to survive over long evolutionar 12. Which one of the following structures or components is not always present in living cells? 13. Browning of the chopped apple can be minimized by : 14. Which of the hydrocarbons are arranged as per the increasing order of their boiling points? 15. Which one of the following apparatus is used for separating benzene and water mixture? 16. An iron nail dipped in copper sulphate solution turns brown. This is due to which one of the following types of reaction 17. Among the following, which is not the correct method for keeping the curd? 18. Toothpaste prevents tooth decay by: 19. A rectangle ABCD is kept in front of a concave mirror of focal length f with its corners A and B being, respectively, at 20. Shown in the figure are two plane mirrors XY and YZ (XY ⊥ YZ) joined at their edge. Also shown is a light ray falli 21. A railway wagon (open at the top) of mass M1 is moving with speed v1 along a straight track. As a result of rain, after 22. Which one of the following statements is not true for a flute, a musical instrument? 23. A positive charge is moving towards south in a space where magnetic field is pointing in the north direction. The moving 24. Which one of the following statements about X-rays is not true? 25. Mica is mainly used in: 26. Organisms capable of using CO2 as principal carbon source are called: 27. When yeast cells are O2 starved, fermentation serves as the source of energy. This results in the production of: 28. During a laboratory experiment, a student immerses epidermal leaf peel in a hypertonic solution. After some time, the st 29. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of fungi? 30. Which one of the following statements about bryophytes is not correct? 31. What is the specific purpose of using potassium hydroxide during the saponification process? 32. Which one of the following is the correct arrangement of metals in the decreasing order of their reactivity? 33. Which among the following statements is not correct with respect to allotropes of Carbon? 34. Which among the following is the popular method for manufacture of ammonia? 35. For manufacturing of glass, which among the following is used as a source of silica? 36. Which among the following is the correct arrangement of halogens in the increasing order of their oxidizing nature? 37. Copper sulphate crystals available in the market are blue coloured crystals. By careful heating, they turn to white colo 38. Equal volume of all gases, when measured at the same temperature and pressure, contain an equal number of particles. Who 39. Airbags work on the principle of a chemical reaction triggered by the impact producing a gaseous product that causes a s 40. Which one of the following astronomers proved that the Earth and other planets revolve around the Sun? 41. Sand falls vertically on a conveyor belt at a work rate of 0⋅1 kg/s. In order to keep the belt moving at a uniform speed 42. The power required to lift a mass of 8⋅0 kg up a vertical distance of 4 m in 2 s is (taking acceleration due to gravity 43. One block of 2⋅0 kg mass is placed on top of another block of 3⋅0 kg mass. The coefficient of static friction between th 44. A mass is attached to a spring that hangs vertically. The extension produced in the spring is 6 cm on Earth. The acceler 45. Which one of the following is an example of Second Class Lever? 46. In an electric circuit, a wire of resistance 10 Ω is used. If this wire is stretched to a length double of its orig 47. What is the total resistance in the following circuit element?
48. Which one of the following statements is true? 49. An electric bulb is rated as 220 V and 80 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power rating would be: 50. In the dispersion of white light by a common glass prism, which one among the following is correct? 51. Which one among the following is true for the speed of sound in a given medium? 52. Which one of the following telescopes contains only mirrors?
General Studies
1. Which one of the following is not an igneous rock? 2. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Hypocenter is the point on the surface of the Earth, nearest to th 3. In terms of geological time scale, the quaternary period consists of two epochs. They are: 4. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of arrangement of the given planets in descending order of their dens 5. Which one of the following is not a cold current? 6. The process of Podsolization is predominantly found in: 7. Joint Military exercise 'Keen Sword 23' was conducted between : 8. The Battle of Rezang La, an epic battle in hostile conditions, was fought by the Indian Army in: 9. Consider the following statements about 'Exercise Sea Vigil-22':
1. Its aim is to assess India's preparedness in the do 10. Consider the following statements:
1. England is the only country that won the ICC T20 World Cup twice.
2. Virat Kohli 11. Freedom fighter Kanaklata Barua was martyred in: 12. Which one among the following statements about the Mansabdari system is correct? 13. Which Governor General of Bengal underwent impeachment proceedings in the British Parliament? 14. Who among the following composed the 'Prayag Prashasti' of Samudragupta? 15. Which one of the following kingdoms was founded by the two brothers Harihar and Bukka? 16. At which one of the following places did the Danes establish their settlement in India? 17. Which one of the following is not a main greenhouse gas? 18. Which one among the following is the northernmost geographical location? 19. Consider the following statements:
1. Distance between the longitudes becomes zero on North Pole and South Pole.
2. Di 20. Which one among the following states is the leading producer of Manganese in India? 21. According to Koppen's climatic classifications, the Great Northern Plains of India have which one of the following clima 22. Which of the following statements about Lachit Borphukan is/are correct?
1. He was a General of the Ahom Force.
2. He 23. The 4th edition of joint military exercise 'DUSTLIK' between the Indian Army and the Uzbekistan Army was held in : 24. Which of the following is India's first privately developed rocket launched by ISRO recently? 25. Which one among the following villages was recently declared as India's first 24 × 7 solar-powered village? 26. Tableaux of which one of the following States was adjudged the best in the Republic Day Parade, 2023? 27. Which one among the following districts of Eastern India held a referendum in 1947 to decide whether or not to join Paki 28. Which one of the following statements about Rabatak inscription is not correct? 29. Who among the following was author of the famous Sanskrit work 'Mrichchhakatika'? 30. Yashovarman was ruler of which one of the following kingdoms? 31. Which one among the following rulers established Pataliputra as the capital of the Magadhan Empire? 32. Which of the following scheme(s) is/are included under Bharatmala Pariyojana?
1. Develop the road connectivity to borde 33. Deendayal Port was earlier known as: 34. The Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School of Indian Army is situated at: 35. In the soil-forming regime, which one of the following occurs in a region where evapotranspiration exceeds precipitation 36. Which one of the following is found in the innermost part of the Earth? 37. Which of the following tree species is/are found on Himalayas?
1. Oak
2. Rhododendron
3. Rosewood
Select the correct 38. Which one of the following is the lowermost/innermost intrusive igneous rock? 39. If it is 12 noon in New Delhi, what will be the time in London, UK? 40. Which of the following positions of Sun, Earth and Moon is/are suitable for Spring Tide?
1. SYZYGY Conjunction
2. SYZY 41. Which Renaissance artist painted 'The Last Supper'? 42. Which one of the following European explorer conquered Mexico? 43. Near which one of the following cities in India have large statues of Kushana rulers been discovered? 44. The Treaty of Yandabo was concluded as part of which one of the following wars? 45. Plan allocation in agriculture and irrigation as percentage of total plan outlay was highest in: 46. The UN COP-27 Summit relates to: 47. Which one of the following tribes from India's North-East had the earliest known association with cultivation and produc 48. By which one of the following amendments, was Article 51A, relating to the Fundamental Duties, inserted into the Constit
1
NDA General Ability 16 April 2023
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1.33
Which one of the following kingdoms was founded by the two brothers Harihar and Bukka?
A
Bahmani
B
Vijayanagara
C
Malwa
D
Maratha
2
NDA General Ability 16 April 2023
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1.33
At which one of the following places did the Danes establish their settlement in India?
A
Chinsura
B
Karaikal
C
Mahe
D
Tranquebar
3
NDA General Ability 16 April 2023
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1.33
Which one of the following is not a main greenhouse gas?
A
Water vapour
B
Oxygen
C
Carbon dioxide
D
Methane
4
NDA General Ability 16 April 2023
MCQ (Single Correct Answer)
+4
-1.33
Which one among the following is the northernmost geographical location?
A
New Delhi
B
Kathmandu
C
Thimphu
D
Dhaka
Paper analysis
Total Questions
English
50
General Science
52
General Studies
48
More papers of NDA
NDA Mathematics 13 April 2025
NDA General Ability 13 April 2025
NDA Mathematics 1st September 2024
NDA General Ability 1st September 2024
NDA Mathematics 21 April 2024
NDA General Ability 21 April 2024
NDA Mathematics 3 September 2023
NDA General Ability 3 September 2023
NDA Mathematics 16 April 2023
NDA General Ability 16 April 2023
NDA Mathematics 4 September 2022
NDA General Ability 4 September 2022
NDA Mathematics 10 April 2022
NDA General Ability 10 April 2022
NDA Mathematics 14 November 2021
NDA Mathematics 18 April 2021
NDA General Ability 18 April 2021
NDA
Papers
2024
2023
2022